CPC Mock Test 2026: 100 Most Important Medical Coding Questions & Answers | CPC Exam Practice Test
Welcome To Medico Pediaa: In this article, we collect important questions related to all series mock questions for cpc exams. This mock is very important for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam. In this article we collect 100 questions in which medical terminology , medical anatomy , compliance , and cpt all series questions and also icd questions and 10 questions from cases . This mock is very important for your cpc exam. In cpc exam total 100 questions come i will give 100 questions for your practice , CPC Mock Test 2026: 100 Most Important Medical Coding Questions & Answers | CPC Exam Practice Test
For CPC exam practice is very must to get 70% in exam, I Already Posted so Much Mock questions and answers for cpc exam. CPC Exam Questions is very tricky , if you read carefully questions then you get right answers and get marks.
Let’s Start
Q1. The procedure known as blepharoplasty is performed to:
a) Correct the muscle misalignment caused by strabismus
b) Correct vision loss due to glaucoma
c) Plastic repair of a droopy eyelid
d) Repair the lens of the eye caused by cataracts
Q2. What suffix denotes the surgical removal of the gallbladder when describing common medical procedures precisely?
a) -lysis
b) -ectomy
c) -otomy
d) -ostomy
Q3. A blood disease that is characterized by an abnormal increase in the amount of white blood cells in the body is normally referred to as:
a) Lymphadenitis
b) Thrombophlebitis
c) Leukemia
d) Lymphoma
Q4. Hemiplegia is a disorder caused by a defect in which anatomic system?
a) Musculoskeletal
b) Nervous
c) Digestive
d) Integumentary
Q5. Which part of the brain controls blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration?
a) Cortex
b) Cerebellum
c) Cerebrum
d) Medulla
Q6. The myocardium is thickest around which chamber of the heart?
a) Right atrium
b) Left atrium
c) Right ventricle
d) Left ventricle
Q7. Which of the following is true about the tympanic membrane?
a) It separates the middle ear from the inner ear.
b) It separates the external ear from the middle ear.
c) It sits within the middle ear.
d) It sits within the inner ear.
Q8. Spongy bone tissue:
a) Is found along the shaft of hard bones.
b) Is found in the outer layers of bones.
c) Makes up the top edges of long bones.
d) Makes up the insides of bones.
Q9. How are Relative Value Units (RVUs) significant in surgical services?
a) They determine the geographic variations in the cost of surgery.
b) They dictate the frequency of surgical audits.
c) They provide guidelines for the minimum necessary dimensions.
d) They measure the value of surgical services based on physician work, practice expenses, and malpractice (liability) costs.
Q10. An Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) is used for:
a) To document a patient’s consent for a surgical procedure.
b) To inform patients about potential charges for services that may not be covered by Medicare.
c) To request pre-authorization for a surgical procedure.
d) To provide a detailed surgical report to the patient.
Q11. A physician performs a rhinoplasty on a 2-year-old male with nasal breathing problems. The child was born with a congenital cleft lip and palate with nasal deformity. The cleft and partial deformity were repaired when the boy was an infant, but the breathing problems have persisted and are a direct result of the congenital nasal deformity. Now that the child can withstand a more intensive procedure, the surgeon performs the rhinoplasty to complete the correction of the deformity. What will likely happen with the processing of this claim, as long as they receive documentation of the procedure’s medical necessity?
a) Insurance will deny the claim as a cosmetic procedure.
b) Insurance will pay for the claim as medically necessary.
c) Insurance will initially deny the claim as medically necessary and then pay for the cosmetic procedure.
d) Insurance will not process the claim.
Q12. When should a coder use a combination code in ICD-10-CM to report a condition and its manifestation?
a) Use only for external causes.
b) When a combination code exists.
c) After using the exclusion instructions.
d) For separate code applicability.
Q13. What does a parenthetical “See” instruction signal the coder to do in the ICD-10-CM codebook?
a) Sequence principal diagnosis first.
b) Consult alternative code entries.
c) Review diagnostic test codes.
d) Apply general coding guidelines.
Q14. When a CPT code has the words “separate procedure” in parentheses after the code description, you:
a) Do not use this code if it is listed as a separate procedure.
b) Code for all other elements of the procedure except this one.
c) Only code for this procedure if it was the only thing performed.
d) Code for this procedure even if it was not performed.
Q15. Which global period applies to major surgical procedures under the CMS global surgery package, including postoperative follow-up care?
a) 0-day global period
b) 10-day global period
c) 30-day global period
d) 90-day global period
Q16. For a significantly more complex procedure than typical, which CPT modifier should be appended?
a) 51
b) 57
c) 22
d) 59
Q17. Which CPT category contains temporary codes for emerging technologies and procedures under evaluation?
a) Category I
b) Category II
c) Category III
d) HCPCS Level II
Q18. How should the CPC proceed during coding a condition that is described as both acute and chronic?
a) Only code the acute condition.
b) Only code the chronic condition.
c) Code both conditions.
d) Exclude coding as both conditions are mutually exclusive.
Q19. A pregnant patient at 20 weeks of gestation without proteinuria is newly diagnosed with gestational hypertension. Which ICD-10-CM code best captures this condition?
a) O13.0
b) O14.0
c) O10.1
d) O13.1
Q20. A patient fell onto an outstretched left hand by slipping and sustained a closed fracture of the distal radius. Which ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?
a) S52.502A, W01.0XXA
b) S52.512A, W01.0XXA
c) S52.502A, W01.118A
d) S52.501A, W01.0XXA
Q21. A 60-year-old patient presents with an acute ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) involving the left anterior wall. Which ICD-10-CM code should be reported?
a) I21.09
b) I21.4
c) I21.01
d) I21.02
Q22. A patient is diagnosed with hypertensive chronic kidney disease (CKD), Stage 3, without heart failure. Which ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?
a) I12.9, N18.3
b) I10, N18.3
c) I12.0, N18.3
d) I12.9, N18.6
Q23. An asymptomatic patient receives a pneumococcal conjugate vaccine during a preventive care visit. Which ICD-10-CM code should be assigned to indicate this encounter?
a) Z23.2
b) Z79.82
c) Z00.00
d) Z23
Q24. An interfacility non-emergency transfer of a stable patient requiring advanced life support interventions from a hospital to a skilled nursing facility is arranged. Which HCPCS Level II code should be reported for this ALS ambulance transport service?
a) A0425
b) A0426
c) A0421
d) A0428
Q25. A patient receives a 5 mg IM injection of leuprolide acetate in a clinic setting for prostate cancer treatment. Which HCPCS Level II code and number of units should be reported to accurately reflect administration under Medicare billing standards?
a) J0640 × 5
b) J0640
c) J9218
d) J9218 × 5
Q26. A home health patient diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea requires a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device for nightly therapy. Which HCPCS Level II code applies for billing this DME equipment?
a) E0601
b) E0424
c) E1390
d) E0284
Q27. A 30-year-old patient undergoes a procedure for a scalp defect where a physician surgically inserts a tissue expander. The operation also includes the initial filling and subsequent expansions with saline solution to stretch the tissue for the final reconstruction. Which CPT code should accurately reports the procedure?
a) 11960
b) 11970
c) 15777
d) 19357
Q28. An 80-year-old woman is evaluated for two new hypoechoic masses in her left breast. In the outpatient radiology suite, an interventional radiologist performs FNA biopsy on both lesions using continuous ultrasound guidance. First, a fine needle is inserted into the 1.6 cm lesion to obtain multiple cytologic samples. The physician then redirects the same needle to sample the second 1.1 cm lesion to obtain additional specimens. Which two CPT codes correctly report these procedures?
a) 10021, 10021-59
b) 10005, 76942-59
c) 10005, 10006
d) 19000, 19001
Q29. A 57-year-old woman presents to the office with five painful hyperkeratotic calluses on her hands. In a single visit, the physician soaks both hands, then pares only the thickened tissue remnants. Which CPT code correctly reports the treatment of these lesions?
a) 11055
b) 11056
c) 11057
d) 11051
Q30. A 25-year-old patient presents with a small, raised lesion on his right forearm. The lesion is non-painful, stable in size, and measures 0.5 cm in diameter. The patient wants it removed due to significant sun exposure. The dermatologist suspects the lesion is benign but decides to excise it for cosmetic, reassurance, and further examination. Which CPT code correctly reports the removal of this lesion?
a) 11305
b) 11400
c) 11055
d) 11600
Q31. A 58-year-old is brought to the ED to repair two lacerations: a 3 cm laceration on the right arm and a 2 cm laceration on her nose. Her arm is repaired with a simple one-layer closure with sutures. Her neck is repaired with a simple repair using tissue adhesive (2-cyanoacrylate). How can the repairs be reported?
a) 12011
b) 12032, 12041-59
c) 12002
d) 12002, 12011-59
Q32. A 35-year-old female has cancer in her left breast. The surgeon performs a mastectomy, removing the breast tissue, skin, pectoral muscle, and surrounding tissue, including the axillary and internal mammary lymph nodes. Which CPT code is reported?
a) 19303
b) 19305
c) 19306
d) 19307
Q33. A patient with congenital maxillary hypoplasia and midface deformity undergoes LeFort. I osteotomy for reconstruction. During the procedure, the surgeon performs a Le Fort.I advancement and reconstruction of the midface, including two-piece (segmental) osteotomies of the maxilla, with bone grafting to reposition the dental arch and restore facial symmetry. Which correct CPT code should report this procedure?
a) 21141
b) 21142
c) 21145
d) 21146
Q34. A patient is diagnosed with compression fractures of the L2, L3, and L4 vertebrae. The patient agrees to have kyphoplasty. A balloon catheter is inserted into the vertebrae and inflated, creating the height of the vertebra. Bone cement is injected into the vertebral space until the whole vertebral body is filled. The same procedure is performed on the L2 and L3 levels. The procedure is performed bilaterally on the three vertebrae. Which CPT coding is reported?
a) 22515 × 3
b) 22514 ,22515 × 2
c) 22514-50, 22515-50 × 2
d) 22514 – 80 × 3
Q35. A 50-year-old presents to the operating room with a right index trigger finger and left shoulder bursitis. The left shoulder is injected with 1 cc of Xylocaine, 1 cc of Depo-Medrol, and 1 cc of Marcaine. An incision was made over the A1 pulley in the right distal palmar crease, about an inch in length. This is taken through the skin and subcutaneous tissue. The A1 pulley is identified and released in its entirety. The wound is irrigated with antibiotic saline. The subcutaneous tissue is injected with Marcaine without epinephrine. The skin is closed with 4-0 Ethilon suture. Clean dressing is applied. What are the codes for these procedures?
a) 26055-F6, 20610-76-LT
b) 20552-F6, 20605-52-LT
c) 26055-F6, 20610-51-LT
d) 20553-F6, 20611-59-LT
Q36. A patient’s left eye is damaged beyond repair due to a work injury. The provider fabricates a prosthesis from silicone materials and makes modifications to restore the patient’s cosmetic appearance. What CPT code is reported?
a) 21088
b) 21086
c) 21080
d) 21077
Q37. A patient presents to their primary care physician for management of degenerative osteoarthritis in the right wrist. The physician performs an injection of 1 mg Synvisc into the right wrist joint. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this encounter?
a) 20551, M19.231
b) 20526, M19.031
c) 20605, M19.031
d) 20606, M19.231
Q38. A patient suffered a wrist fracture while hiking, and a gauntlet cast was applied by the ER physician. One month later, the patient visits their primary care provider to have the cast removed. What CPT code is reported by the primary care provider?
a) 29705
b) 29700
c) 29584
d) 29280
Q39. A 56-year-old patient requires Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) for acute respiratory syndrome. The cannula insertion is through an open approach via surgical incision in the chest. What CPT code(s) are reported?
a) 33956, 32100
b) 33956
c) 33954, 32100
d) 33954
Q40. A patient with chronic sinus pain and swelling presented to the office for a diagnostic endoscopy of the nasal sinuses. During the procedure, the surgeon excised two polyps in the left nasal sinus. What is the correct CPT code for this procedure?
a) 31231, 31235
b) 31231, 31237
c) 31235
d) 31237
Q41. A 45-year-old female in the hospital who has AIDS has been put on a ventilator due to her weakness and dyspnea. The physician suspects she has pneumonia and performs a thoracoscopy. The contents of the chest cavity are inspected with an endoscope and multiple nodules are seen in the right lung and biopsied. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is diagnosed. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a) 32601, B59
b) 32608, B20, B59
c) 32608, B20, B59, Z21
d) 32650, B59, B20
Q42. A 42-year-old female patient presents for a scheduled hematology laboratory test. The healthcare provider obtains the blood sample through the patient’s existing peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following CPT codes should be reported for this procedure?
a) 36415
b) 36591
c) 36592
d) 37299
Q43. A physician performed a repair of a diaphragmatic hernia on a 15-day-old neonate with the creation of a ventral hernia. What is the correct CPT code for this service?
a) 39501
b) 39503
c) 39540
d) 39541
Q44. A 38-year-old patient develops progressively worsening hypotension, prompting the need for immediate central venous access for fluid resuscitation. An emergent non-tunneled central venous catheter is inserted into the subclavian vein and secured for medication infusion. Because of the patient’s low blood pressure and the anticipated requirement for vasopressor therapy, an arterial line is also placed. The left radial artery is easily palpated, and an angiocatheter is inserted into the left wrist. Which CPT code should be reported for this encounter?
a) 36555, 36620-51
b) 36556, 36620-51
c) 36558, 36640-51
d) 36569, 36620-51
Q45. A patient suffering from cirrhosis of the liver presents with a history of coffee-ground emesis. The surgeon diagnoses the patient with esophagogastric varices. Two days later, in the hospital GI lab, the surgeon ligates the varices with bands via an upper GI endoscopy. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a) 43205, K70.30, I85.10
b) 43244, K74.60, I85.11
c) 43400, K70.30, I85.11
d) 43238, K74.60, I85.10
Q46. A 46-year-old male with a 20-year history of cigar smoking presents with a suspicious lesion on his lower lip. Due to clinical suspicion of malignancy, the physician performs a shave biopsy of the lower lip. What is the correct CPT code for this procedure?
a) 11102
b) 11104
c) 40490
d) 40500
Q47. A 66-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of stomach cancer. The surgeon performs a total gastrectomy with formation of an intestinal pouch. Due to the spread of the disease, the physician also performs a total en bloc splenectomy. What CPT codes are reported?
a) 43622, 38100-51
b) 43622, 38102
c) 43634, 38115-51
d) 43634, 38102-51
Q48. A patient with a history of a radical right hemicolectomy for ascending colon carcinoma presents for a scheduled follow-up colonoscopy. The physician inserts a video colonoscope and advances it beyond the splenic flexure. During the procedure, the patient experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. Due to the hemodynamic instability, the physician elects to terminate the scope. What is the correct CPT code reported?
a) 45378-53
b) 45391-52
c) 44360-53
d) 45399-52
Q49. A patient underwent a laparoscopic cholecystectomy including intraoperative cholangiography. How should this procedure be reported?
a) 47605, 47520-59
b) 47605
c) 47563
d) 47579
Q50. A 50-year-old male presents to the OR room for open surgery on a recurrent incarcerated incisional hernia repair with insertion of prosthetic mesh. The size of the hernia is 12 cm. What CPT code is reported?
a) 49618, 15778
b) 49596
c) 49596, 15778
d) 49618
Q51. An 87-year-old male patient in a rehabilitation hospital, status post hip transplant, is having trouble voiding. After his last voiding, the physician measured his bladder capacity using a non-imaging ultrasound device. How should you code for this procedure?
a) 51741
b) 51798
c) 51798-50
d) 51792
Q52. A patient presents with a right-sided ureteral calculus. In the OR room, the physician performs a cystoscopy with ureteroscopy to remove the stone. Which CPT code should be reported for this procedure?
a) 51065
b) 52310
c) 52352
d) 52353
Q53. A neonatal male has an elective circumcision before home discharge from the newborn nursery. The physician uses a ring block for the local anesthetic and the foreskin is placed over the glans. A clamp is selected for the size of the glans and a constricting circular ring is placed over the foreskin to compress and devascularize the foreskin. The devascularized foreskin is excised with a scalpel, the ring device is removed, and the penis is dressed. Which CPT code is reported?
a) 54150
b) 54150- 52
c) 54160
d) 54161
Q54. A 55-year-old male presents with AVT (arteriovenous thrombosis) complicated as secondary to intrinsic sphincter deficiency. The surgeon performs a vaginal sling procedure. A mid-urethral incision is made and dissected laterally to the urethral segment. The synthetic sling is positioned with the urethrovesical junction and the ends are brought through to a suprapubic incision. Tissue safety and cystourethroscopy are performed, confirming no bladder or urethral perforation occurred during the procedure. Tension is adjusted using a hemostat to allow a tension-free support. Which CPT code should be reported?
a) 57288
b) 52287
c) 52000, 57288
d) 52000, 51992
Q55. 67-year-old gentleman with localized prostate cancer will be receiving brachytherapy treatment. Following calculation of the planned transrectal ultrasound, guidance was provided for percutaneous placement of 1-125 seeds into the prostate tissue. What CPT® code is reported for needle placement to insert the radioactive seeds into the prostate?
a) 55860
b) 55920
c) 55875
d) 55876
Q56.A female patient with extensive invasive bladder cancer presents for surgical intervention. The surgeon performs a total cystectomy. During the same operative session, bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy is completed including external iliac, hypogastric, and obturator nodes. To manage urinary output, the surgeon creates a ureteroileal conduit (ileal loop). Which CPT code should be reported?
a) 51575, 50820
b) 50820, 51570, 38770
c) 51595
d) 51590, 38770
Q57.A single bolus of procaine solution is injected into the vagus nerve of the diaphragm to treat intractable hiccups in the ER. Provide the procedure and diagnosis codes.
a) F45.8, 64408
b) R06.6, 64408
c) F45.8, 64517
d) R06.6, 64517
Q58.A surgeon performs an open carpal tunnel release on a 35-year-old patient. The surgeon makes an incision in the palm and cuts the transverse carpal ligament to relieve pressure on the median nerve. The wound is then closed in layers. Which CPT code should be used?
a) 64721
b) 64719
c) 64708
d) 64704
Q59. A pt undergoes a surgical procedure on the thyroid gland. After the pt is anesthetized, the surgeon makes an incision in the neck, separates the muscles, bluntly removes the right thyroid lobe. No tumor is found. The incision is closed in layers. What is the correct CPT code for this procedure?
a) 60210-RT
b) 60220-RT
c) 60252-RT
d) 60260-RT
Q60. A physician utilized a laser and neuroendoscopic guidance to create a duct from the third lateral ventricle to the cisterna magna as a treatment for hydrocephalus. What is the correct code for this procedure?
a) 62180
b) 62200
c) 62201
d) 62220
Q61.An entropion repair is performed on the left lower eyelid in which undermining was performed with scissors of the inferior lid and inferior temporal region. Deep sutures were used to separate the eyelid margin outwardly along with stripping the lateral tarsus to provide firm approximation of the lower lid to the globe. The correct CPT code:
a) 67914-E1
b) 67917-E1
c) 67921-E2
d) 67924-E2
Q62. A 2 yrs old child is brought to the ED because she is crying and pulling at her ear. The physician discovers a small plastic toy stuck in the child’s outer ear canal. The doctor successfully removes the object using forceps while the child is awake. Which CPT code should be reported for this procedure?
a) 69105
b) 69110
c) 69200
d) 69205
Q63. A pt in her second trimester of pregnancy is referred for a fetal echocardiogram due to suspected congenital heart defect. The physician performs the procedure in real-time, providing 2D image documentation and M-mode recording to assess the fetal heart structure and function. Which CPT code?
a) 76820
b) 76825
c) 76826
d) 76827
Q64.A 55 yr old male with a family history of premature CAD presents for a screening evaluation. The physician orders a CT scan of the heart without contrast material. The primary objective is to perform a quantitative assessment of coronary artery calcium (calcium scoring) to risk-stratify the patient. Which CPT code?
a) 75571
b) 75572
c) 75574
d) 75557
Q65.A 58 yr old pt with suspected CHF is scheduled for diagnostic imaging. The physician performs a single-planar stress cardiac blood pool imaging study. The procedure includes gated equilibrium evaluation between motion and calculation of the ejection fraction. Relative values are the primary to measure the right ventricular ejection fraction.Which CPT code?
a) 78472, 78496
b) 78493, 78496
c) 78451, 78454
d) 78481, 78483
Q66. A radiation oncologist provides clinical management for a patient undergoing treatment for small cell lung cancer. During the session, the physician performs the following:
Reviews the patient’s port films.
Oversees the delivery of 6 treatment fractions of 200 cGy external beam radiation.
Checks that all treatment parameters are appropriate for the physician’s supervision.
Which CPT code is reported?
a) 77402
b) 77386
c) 77427
d) 77435
Q67. A female patient is evaluated in the clinic after she has fallen and struck her right-sided parietal bone. She reports severe urinary obstruction pain and significant nasal mucous. On physical examination, there is a visible deformity of the nasal bone. To assess for possible fractures, the physician orders a radiologic examination of the nasal bones. The imaging technician performs and reviews a lateral view and a Waters view.What is the appropriate CPT code?
a) 70486
b) 70220
c) 70150
d) 70140
Q68. A 40 yrs old female is referred to the radiology suite for a diagnostic evaluation of the renal parenchyma & collecting system. The radiologist performs a biphasic infusion urography (bolus technique). To enhance the visualization of the kidney tissue & identify potential small lesions, nephrotomography is performed as part of the same imaging session. Which CPT code should be reported?
a) 74412
b) 74425
c) 74415
d) 74410
Q69. A physician utilizes automated equipment to perform a lipid panel (consisting of HDL, total serum cholesterol, & triglycerides) along with a quantitative glucose test. Which of the following CPT code set accurately report these services?
a) 83718, 82465, 84478, 82947
b) 83721, 82465, 82951
c) 80061, 82947
d) 80061, 82950
Q70. A 28 yrs old woman presents to the OB/GYN stating that she tested positive on a home pregnancy test. The OB decides to perform a urine pregnancy test in the office for confirmation. What is the CPT code for the pregnancy test only?
a) 81003
b) 81003, 81025
c) 81002, 81025
d) 81025
Q71. A physician order an ultrasensitive fibrin degradation product (D-dimer) test for a patient with a suspected DVT which cpt code should be reported for the laboratory services
a) 85362
b) 85378
c) 85379
d) 85380
Q72. A patient has a cholecystectomy and a soft tissue lipoma removed during the same operative session. Both specimens were sent to pathology in separate containers and examined by the pathologist. What CPT code(s) should be reported?
a) 88305, 88304
b) 88304 × 2
c) 88304, 88302
d) 88305 × 2
Q73. A patient with a family history of breast cancer has a BRCA1 gene analysis ordered. The physician wants the full sequence analysis. What is the correct CPT code for this test?
a) 81162
b) 81163
c) 81165
d) 81166
Q74. Sperm is being prepared through a washing method to get it ready for the insemination of five oocytes for fertilization by directly injecting the sperm into each oocyte. Choose the CPT code(s) to report.
a) 89257, 89280
b) 89260, 89280
c) 89261, 89280
d) 89260, 89268
Q75. A 20 month old patient with ESRD receives dialysis twice per week while awaiting a kidney transplant. The physician provides weekly face-to-face counseling sessions with the parents regarding the patient’s care and status. Which CPT code correctly reports the monthly ESRD-related service?
a) 90951 × 4
b) 90951
c) 90952
d) 90954 × 4
Q76. A 24 yrs old female patient presents to the clinic with an acute asthma exacerbation. The provider performs a baseline spirometry. Following the initial test, the patient is administered 1 mg of albuterol via nebulizer. After an appropriate waiting period, the spirometry is repeated to evaluate the patient’s response to the bronchodilator. The results indicate an obstructive pattern with slight improvement in air movement. What is the CPT code?
a) 94010
b) 94012
c) 94060
d) 94070
Q77. Which of the following drugs is not pending FDA approval?
a) 90664
b) 90666
c) 90667
d) 90668
Q78. A baby was born with a ventricular septal defect (VSD). The physician performed a right heart catheterization and transcatheter closure with implant by percutaneous approach. What codes are reported?
a) 93530, 93581-59, Q21.9
b) 93581, Q21.0
c) 93530, Q24.0
d) 93530, 93591-59, Q21.0
Q79.A cancer patient is coming in to have a chemotherapy infusion. The physician notes the patient is dehydrated and will first administer a hydration infusion. The infusion time was 1 hour and 30 minutes. Select the code(s) that should be reported for this encounter?
a) 96360
b) 96360, 96361
c) 96365, 96366
d) 96422
Q80. Joe, a 42-year-old construction worker, had hot packs applied to his knee and elbow and ultrasound for 30 minutes. He is scheduled to have eight physical rehabilitation sessions to help eliminate pain in his knee and elbow suffered when he fell from a ladder. This is his second visit and reports some relief. What codes correctly capture these services?
a) 97010 x 2, 97035
b) 97010, 97035 x 2
c) 97014, 97035
d) 97010 x 2, 97035 x 2
Q81. A physician conducts a synchronous audio/video consultation for a new patient with SF MDM lasting 18 min. Which CPT code is reported?
a) 99202
b) 98000
c) 98016
d) 98004
Q82. Clinical staff spend 45 minutes for a calendar month managing a patient with two chronic conditions which require cardiovascular management. Which CPT code(s) are reported?
a) 99490
b) 99490, 99439
c) 99491
d) 99487
Q83.A physician makes a home care visit for a 53-year-old patient that is a hemiplegic patient, insomnia for the last two weeks due to pain in the legs. The physician has been providing home-bound care for the last year. The visit is from the physician was four month ago to control his DM. The physician performs medically appropriate history and examination. The provider notes the DM is controlled and discusses some ways to assist with the insomnia. The physician then speaks with the spouse about the possibility of placing the patient in a nursing facility cpt code?
a) 99213
b) 99342
c) 99344
d) 99348
Q84. A critical care patient is attended to by a physician for a total duration of 80 minutes in a single calendar date. Which code(s) can be reported?
a) 99291
b) 99291 and 99292
c) 99291, 99292 × 2
d) 99291 × 2
Q85. A physician spends 45 minutes performing fecal examination and discharge paperwork for a patient being sent home from the hospital. Which code is reported?
a) 99238
b) 99239
c) 99235
d) 99215
Q86. The physician performed an annual examination on a 47-year-old male new patient with a history of congenital heart disease. What CPT code should be reported?
a) 99386
b) 99387
c) 99396
d) 99397
Q87. A 51-year-old man is having a CABG with pump oxygenator. The anesthesiologist uses acute normovolemic hemodilution and cell salvage (blood recovery).What is the correct code?
a) 00566, 99116
b) 00566, 99135
c) 00567, 99116
d) 00567, 99135
Q88.A healthy 79-year-old male patient with communicating hydrocephalus undergoes creation of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt.What is the correct anesthesia code?
a) 00220-P1, 99100
b) 00220-P1
c) 00220-P1, 99100
d) 00210-P1, 99100
Q89. A 75-year-old patient presents for surgical debridement of third-degree burns sustained while cleaning brush. The burns cover 37% of his body.Which code set correctly identifies the anesthesia services?
a) 01951, 01952, 01953
b) 01951, 01953 × 2, 99100
c) 01952, 01953, 99100
d) 01952, 01953 × 2
Q90. A 38-year-old female undergoes an extended ophthalmoscopy with retinal drawing. The performing physician also provides the anesthesia service because an anesthesiologist is unavailable. The physician documents a formal interpretation and report.
a) D0148-47
b) 92201- 47
c) 92201, 00148-47
d) 92201- 47, 00148
Q91. Case 01:
Operative Report
Preoperative Diagnosis: Unstable left distal radius fracture.
Postoperative Diagnosis: Unstable left distal radius fracture.
Procedure: Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning with manipulation of left distal radius fracture.
Anesthesia: General.
Indications:
Patient is a very pleasant 14-year-old young man who is here for evaluation. I had seen him in clinic earlier today and he had a bicycle wreck with an unstable distal radial ulnar joint and unstable fracture. I discussed with him and his mother, preoperatively, the risks and benefits, and they wish to proceed with surgery.
Description of Procedure:
The patient was brought to the operating room and placed in the supine position on the operating table. General anesthesia was induced. Antibiotics were given preoperatively. The left arm was prepped and draped in the usual standard orthopedic fashion. Landmarks were identified; closed reduction maneuver was performed with traction and reproduction of the deformity and then reduction. A near anatomic reduction was afforded, visualized with multiplanar C-arm fluoroscopic imaging. Then I placed two 6.2 K-wires percutaneously, one through the radial styloid and one through the Lister’s tubercle, which gave us adjunctive fixation of this manipulated fracture. Multiplanar C-arm fluoroscopic imaging confirmed good placement of the implants and a near anatomic reduction. A sterile dressing and sugar-tong splint was applied. The patient was awakened from anesthesia and taken to the Recovery Room in stable condition postoperatively. There were no operative complications. Estimated blood loss was minimal. All counts were correct.
What is/are the CPT code(s) for this procedure?
a) 25600-LT
b) 25605-LT
c) 25660-LT
d) 25607-LT
Q92. Case 02:
Pre-procedure Diagnosis: Asthma
Post-procedure Diagnosis: Asthma (Post procedural diagnosis used for coding.)
Procedure: Psychophysiological Therapy Biofeedback
The patient returned to clinic with daily documenting home peak flow readings and asthma symptoms. Diary was assessed and discussed with patient. Patient reports reduced dosing with inhaled steroids and fewer asthmatic episodes. Lungs and respiratory resistance assessed. Lungs clear, no wheezes or rhonchi noted. (Psychophysiological training). HRV biofeedback was performed using a physiograph. (Biofeedback documentation.) ECG data were collected from the left arm and right leg, and were digitized at 510 Hz. EEG biofeedback equipment attached and baroreflex gain was assessed with beat-to-beat BP recordings and digitized at a rate of 252 samples per second. The sensor was placed on the participant’s right middle finger, and the hand was elevated on a table to approximately the level of the heart. Respiratory system impedance (Zrs) (between 2 and 32 Hz with 2-Hz increments) was measured using a pseudorandom noise forced oscillation system. It was presented in 40 20-second bursts spaced equally throughout in order to minimize the effects of possible partial glottal closure during exhalation, each burst was triggered by the beginning of an inhalation. Post procedure, inspirometer readings were recorded. Asthma symptoms were scored with the patient. Biofeedback procedure lasted approximately 35 minutes. (Biofeedback time.) The patient is to return to clinic two weeks after daily diary. It is expected the patient will continue with reduced regimen and asthmatic episodes.
What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported?
a) 90875, 90901, J45.909
b) 90876, 90912, J45.902
c) 90875, J45.909
d) 90875, J45.902
Q93. Case 03:
PROGRESS NOTE: This patient is a 50 year-old female who began developing bleeding, bright red blood per rectum (Patient’s presenting complaint), approximately two weeks ago. She is referred by her family physician. She states that after a bowel movement she noticed blood in the toilet. She denied any prior history of bleeding or pain with defecation. She states that she has had an external hemorrhoid (This is reported by the patient, but not documented in the exam or assessment, so it is not coded.) that did bleed at times but that is not where this bleeding is coming from. She is presently concerned because a close friend of hers was recently diagnosed with rectal carcinoma requiring chemotherapy that was missed by her primary doctor. She is here today for evaluation for a colonoscopy. Physical examination, she appears to be a well appearing 50 year-old, white female. Abdomen is soft, non-tender, non-distended.
ASSESSMENT: 50 year-old female with rectal bleeding (Report the code documented in the assessment).
PLAN: We’ll schedule the patient for an outpatient colonoscopy. The patient was made aware of all the risks involved with the procedure and was willing to proceed.
What diagnosis code(s) are reported?
a) K62.5, C21.8
b) R58
c) K62.4, C21.8, K64
d) K62.5
Q94. Case 04:
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Comminuted intraarticular distal radial Colles’ fracture, left wrist.
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Comminuted intraarticular distal radial Colles’ fracture, left wrist.
PROCEDURE: Application of a uniplane fixation and closed reduction of left distal radial fracture under fluoroscopy.
ANESTHESIA: General endotracheal.
DESCRIPTION OF THE PROCEDURE: After induction of adequate general anesthesia, the patient’s left upper extremity was routinely prepped and draped in a sterile field. The extremity was elevated and exsanguinated with an Esmarch bandage. The tourniquet was inflated to 300 ml of mercury. We placed two half pins distally over the dorsoradial aspect of the second metacarpal. The first was placed in freehand technique making an incision, spreading with a hemostat, and then placing the half pin. The second pin was placed identically but using the pin guide. Similarly, we placed pins in the dorsoradial aspect of the distal third of the radius. We connected these two pins with clamps, and then under C-arm control, we reduced the fracture. All pins are now attached to the external fixation. This fracture at both the dorsal and volar comminution and intraarticular fractures was significantly shortened and telescoped. We obtained the best reduction possible, and tightened down the clamps to the bars. The pin tracks were dressed with Xeroform and 2 × 2 gauze, and volar 3 × 15 plaster splints were applied. The tourniquet was allowed to deflate during application of the dressing. Total tourniquet time was 14 minutes. There were no intraoperative complications.Question: What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported?
a) 20690-LT, 25605-51-LT, S52.532A
b) 20690-RT, 25605-51-RT, S52.531A
c) 20690-LT, 25605-59-LT, S52.532A
d) 20692-LT, 25605-51-LT, S52.531A
Q95. Case 05:
Pre-procedure Diagnosis: Persistent Right and Left Leg pains; Extensive varicose vein disease.
Post-procedure Diagnosis: Varicose vein disease with inflammation, venous insufficiency, leg pains due to varicose veins.
Procedure: Peripheral Vascular Duplex Ultrasound Evaluation of the Venous Anatomy of the Lower Extremities.
Patient’s right and left leg venous anatomy was examined in the standing position utilizing a B-mode Duplex ultrasound machine with a 12 MHz probe. The focus was to determine the location and flow characteristics of both the deep and superficial venous systems. The evaluation included dynamically focused grayscale color imaging supplemented by Doppler spectral analysis. Valsalva maneuver as well as calf and thigh compressions were performed to determine the patency and direction of blood flow, the exact paths of venous reflux in the major venous trunks, tributaries, and perforator veins. Ultrasonic mapping included images of major deep veins of the leg, saphenofemoral junction, the great saphenous vein above and below the knee, and the short saphenous vein system below the knee. Measurements and flow characteristics were obtained and listed on the flow chart. Bilaterally, the great saphenous veins were absent beginning at the saphenofemoral junction, due to previous surgery. Noted was venous reflux and enlargement of neovascular and tributary veins of the venous system in the upper and lower leg. Abnormalities and associated perforator veins were documented on venous map in chart. The internal diameters of the leg varicosities varied to 5 and 3.8 mm in diameter, bilaterally. No evidence of deep venous reflux or thrombosis noted within the femoral, popliteal, gastrocnemius, or posterior tibial vessels. Photocopies were taken of the venous abnormalities and are included in the medical record.
Findings:
Varicose vein disease with inflammation
Venous insufficiency
Leg pains due to varicose veins
Question: What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes?
a) 93970, I83.11, I83.12
b) 93970-50, I83.11, I83.12
c) 93971-LT-RT, I83.1
d) 93030, I83.1
Q96.Case 06:
Postoperative Diagnosis: Rectal prolapse
Operation: Laparoscopic proctopexy and cystourethroscopy with placement of unilateral ureteral stent
Anesthesia: General
Indications: A 66-year-old female with history osteoarthritis and known rectal prolapse. The patient has had symptoms of rectal prolapse for the past 3–5 years with rectal bulging, rectal drainage, and difficulty with bowel movements.
Operation: The patient was prepped and placed in lithotomy position. The urology team performed a cystourethroscopy and placed unilateral lighted ureteral stent. Trocars were placed and upon entering the abdomen the uterus was draped over the rectum, sutured the uterus out of the way. Complete mobilization of the rectum was completed and several sutures were placed on the right and left side of sacrum. No significant bleeding, irrigated pelvis and removed uterus suture from abdominal wall. Closure of sutures and skin glue completed the procedure and anesthesia performed a TAP block. Patient was sent to PACU in stable condition.
What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a) 45400, 52332, K62.3
b) 45540, 52341, K62.3
c) 45540, 52332, K62.2
d) 45400, 52341, K62.3
Q97. Case 07:
Radiology Report
EXAM: X-ray lumbar spine
INDICATION FOR PROCEDURE: Nontraumatic low back pain
TECHNIQUE: Six views of the lumbosacral spine and bending
FINDINGS: Five non-rib bearing lumbar type vertebrae. There is narrowing and endplate sclerosis with spurring most pronounced at the L2-L3 and L3-L4 level on the left. Vertebral body heights are normal. Spinal alignment is normal.
IMPRESSION: Lumbar spondylosis at the L2-L3 and L3-L4 level.
What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a) 72084-26, M47.817, M54.50
b) 72114-26, 72120-26, M47.817, M54.50
c) 72084-26, 72120-26, M47.816
d) 72114-26, M47.816
Q98. Case 08
OPERATIVE REPORT
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Full thickness burn wound to anterior left lower leg.
Operation: Split-thickness graft, approximately 35 centimeters, preparation of the wound.
Procedure: Left lower leg was prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion. The ulcer, which measured approximately 6 cm, was debrided sharply with a Goulian knife until healthy bleeding was seen. The bleeding was controlled with epinephrine-soaked lap pads. Split-thickness skin graft was harvested from the left lateral buttock area approximately to the depth of an inch. The graft was meshed to 1 to 1.5 fashion and placed over the prepared wound, stabilized with staples and then Xeroform dressings and dry dressings, wrapped with Kerlix and finally immobilized in a posterior splint. The donor site was covered with Xeroform and dry dressings.
Question: What are the correct procedure codes reported by the physician for this procedure performed in the hospital outpatient surgical suite?
a) 15220-LT, 15221-51-LT, 15002-51-LT
b) 15100-LT
c) 14021-LT, 15002-51-LT
d) 15100-LT, 15002-51-LT
Q99. Case 09:
Postoperative Diagnosis: Recurrent right-sided epistaxis
Procedure: Right maxillary antrostomy with biopsy and right internal maxillary artery ligation
Complications: None
History: This is a 71-year-old male with a problem with recurrent epistaxis. He did have a widely deviated nasal septum which I did repair about a month ago, but despite that he is still having one to two nosebleeds a week, which are fairly severe. Because of that I did recommend to him that he undergo an internal maxillary artery ligation. The procedure, risks, and benefits were discussed with him in the office and he is agreeable to the surgery.
Description of Procedure: The patient underwent an endoscopic right nasal and maxillary sinus procedure under anesthesia. Local anesthetic and vasoconstriction were applied, followed by insertion of a nasal endoscope. The surgeon identified and widened the right maxillary sinus opening (antrostomy) and obtained tissue for pathology. A mucosal flap was elevated to access the posterior maxillary sinus, where the right internal maxillary artery was identified, isolated, and ligated with clips to control bleeding. Additional prominent nasal blood vessels were cauterized for hemostasis. The procedure concluded without complications, and the patient was stable postoperatively. What are the CPT code(s) for this service?
a) 31267-RT, 30920-RT
b) 31237-RT, 30920-RT
c) 31267-RT, 37617-RT
d) 31256-RT, 31237-RT, 30920-RT
Q100. Case 10:
Extent of Examination: Upper GI Endoscopy
Reason(s) for Examination: GERD
Description of Procedure: Informed consent was obtained with benefits, risks, and alternatives to upper GI endoscopy explained, including the risk of perforation. The patient agreed to proceed. No contraindications were noted on physical exam. Anesthesia administered by CRNA (see anesthesia report). MAC was administered. The procedure was performed with the patient in left lateral decubitus position. The instrument was inserted into the mouth to the second part of the duodenum. The patient tolerated the procedure well. There were no complications. The heart rate was normal. The oxygen saturation and skin color were normal. Upon discharge from the endoscopy area, the patient will be recovered per established procedures and protocols.
Findings:
The esophagus was examined, and no abnormalities were seen.
The gastroesophageal junction (upper level of gastric folds) was located 40 cm from the incisors.
The stomach was examined, and no abnormalities were seen.
The small bowel was examined, and no abnormalities were seen. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for the operative report?
a) 43239, K21.9
b) 43235, K21.9
c) 43249, K21.00
d) 44360, K21.9
Answer
1 – c, 2– b , 3- c, 4- b, 5 – d, 6-d, 7- b, 8-d, 9-d, 10 -b,
11-b, 12-b , 13 – b , 14 -c , 15 – d, 16 – c, 17 – c , 18 – c, 19 – d, 20 – a,
21 – c, 22 -a, 23 – d, 24 – b, 25 -d, 26- a, 27 – a , 28 – c, 29 – c, 30-b,
31- d, 32- c, 33- d, 34-b, 35- c, 36- d, 37-c , 38- b, 39- b, 40-d,
41- b, 42-c, 43-b, 44- b, 45-b , 46-c, 47-b, 48-a, 49-c, 50-d,
51- b, 52- c, 53- a, 54- b, 55- c, 56- c , 57-b, 58- a, 59-b , 60- c,
61- d , 62- c, 63- b, 64- a, 65- a, 66-c, 67- d, 68-c, 69-c, 70-d,
71-d, 72-b, 73-c, 74- b, 75-b, 76-c, 77-a, 78-b, 79-a, 80-C b,
81-b, 82-b, 83-d, 84-b, 85-b, 86-a, 87-c, 88-a, 89-c, 90-b,
91-a, 92-c, 93-d, 94-a , 95-a, 96-a, 97-d, 98-d, 99-a, 100-b
CPC mock , CPC mock practice set, CPC exam preparation, CPT questions for cpc exam, CPC 100 questions mock, Mock questions for cpc exam , Most Important Questions for CPC Exam 2026
Share this article For More Information.
If you have any questions, please contact us.
Thanks For Reading this Article.
CPC Exam Practice Questions 2025 Free Medical Coding Mock Test
CPC Exam Practice Questions 2025 Free Medical Coding Mock Test PDF
Sample Questions Paper for CPC Exam :-https://medicopediaa.com/sample-questions-paper-for-cpc-exam/
CPC Exam Practice Paper 2025 “- https://medicopediaa.com/cpc-exam-practice-paper-2025/
For Any Query : DM me on Insta : – @medico_pediaa