CPC Questions Paper For Practice Part-1

CPC Questions Paper For Practice Part-1 : In this article, we collect important questions related to all series for cpc exams. This Questions is very important for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam. In this article we collect 50 questions in which cover all series questions and answers . This Test Series is very important for your cpc exam. In cpc exam total 100 questions come but in this artficle we provide 50 questions for practice , CPC exam mock questions .For CPC exam practice is very must to get 70% in exam, i will provide back to back questions and answers for cpc exam in the website. CPC Exam Questions is very tricky , if you read carefully questions then you get right answers and get marks.

The AAPC’s Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam is currently the gold standard of coding certifications. Let’s take a look at this certification exam now.

Question 1. The physician is called in to perform repairs for a 17 year-old girl involved in a motor vehicle accident. She sustained an 8.6 cm laceration to her forehead, a 5.5 cm laceration to her right cheek, a 4 cm laceration to her left cheek, a 4 cm laceration across her chin, and a 12.5 cm laceration to her chest. The wound on her chin required a layered closure. All other wounds required complex closure. The CPT® codes to report are:

A) 13132, 13133 x 4, 13101, 120521

B) 13132, 13133 x 3, 13133-52, 13101, 13102, 12052

C) 13132, 13133 x 3, 13101, 13102, 12052

D) 13131, 13132, 13133 x 3, 13101, 13102, 12052

Question 2. A 36-year-old male presents to have multiple lesions destroyed. Three benign lesions on his face are destroyed and five actinic keratoses on his left arm are destroyed. The CPT® code(s) to report is (are):

A) 17000, 17003

B) 17000, 17003 x 4, 17110

C) 17110

D) 17260 x 5, 17110 x 3

Question 3. Patient is having ongoing back and hip pain. The physician elects to perform a sacroiliac injection at an ambulatory surgery center. After sterile prep, the patient is placed prone position. A needle is placed under fluoroscopic guidance into the SI joint and a mixture of 20 mg of Celestone and Marcaine is injected for pain relief. Report the CPT® code(s).

A) 27096, 77003-26

B) 20611

C) 20552

D) 27096

Question 4. A Year-old female has a L5 age-related osteoporotic compression fracture and is in the outpatient facility to have vertebroplasty to restore the vertebral body.

The patient is appropriately prepped and local anesthesia with light sedation is administered. A biopsy needle is guided into the fractured vertebra using x-ray guidance. Specially formulated acrylic bone cement is injected directly into the fractured vertebra, filling the spaces within the bone with the goal of creating a type of internal cast to stabilize the vertebral bone. The needle is removed and the small skin puncture is covered with a bandage. The patient is taken to the recovery room and discharged later in the same day.

Select the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for this procedure:

A) 22510, M80.08XA

B) 22513, 77002-26, M48.56XA

C) 22511, M80.08XA

D) 22511, 77002-26, M48.56XA

Question 5. A 35-year-old female patient presents with acute onset of severe pain since October. Her workup has revealed evidence of disk herniation with loss of lordosis at the C5-C6. Intraoperative findings were consistent with two large fragments of free disk fragments in the foramen at C5-C6 on the right side. After general anesthesia, the patient was placed on the operative table in the supine position. All pressure points were cushioned and a transverse skin incision was fashioned under fluoroscopic guidance over the C5-C6 disc space. Dissection through the platysma eventually allowed for exposure of the anterior entrance to the vertebral body of C5 and C6 and retractors were inserted to maintain adequate exposure. The operating microscope was brought into the field. Caspar posts were placed and slight distraction allowed exposure. A complete discectomy was performed at C5-C6 by using endplate curets pituitary rongeurs and Kerrison rongeurs. The posterior longitudinal ligament was resected and beneath the posterior longitudinal ligament, two significant sized disc fragments were noted in the foramen at C5-C6. These were removed using pituitary and Decker instruments. The endplates were then decorticated so that they were parallel to each other and a midline keel was performed on AP and lateral fluoroscopy. A size #1 by 5 mm interbody Kineflex-C device was placed under fluoroscopic guidance. Satisfied with the positioning of the device, the decision was made to close. What is the correct CPT® code for this procedure?

A) 63075

B)63081

C) 22856

D) 22554

Question 6. The patient comes in today to have an arteriovenous fistula created to facilitate dialysis. The surgeon performs an upper arm basilic vein transposition based on the patient’s previous arterial duplex scan. Which is the appropriate CPT® code for this procedure?

A) 36825

B) 36830

C) 36818

D) 36819

Question 7. A 56-year-old with lung cancer developed an effusion that is suspicious for malignancy. Needle aspiration is performed to obtain a sample of the fluid for pathological examination. A needle is inserted between the ribs and into the pleural space, and the fluid is withdrawn. The specimen is sent to pathology. Choose the CPT® code that reports the procedure described.

A) 32554 oo

B) 32555

C) 32551

D) 32400

Question 8. A 67-year-old male patient is referred for a flex sigmoidoscopy exam to remove polyps. The physician found three polyps in the rectosigmoid junction. They were removed by hot biopsy forceps. The path report indicated the polyps were benign. What is the CPT® code to report for this encounter?

A) 45333

B) 45315

C) 45384

D) 45346

Question 9. A patient with rectal bleeding underwent a proctosigmoidoscopy that showed she had two internal hemorrhoids. The anus was prepped and draped. A field block with Marcaine 0.25% was then placed. There was an internal prolapsing hemorrhoid in the anterior midline. This was rubber band ligated by applying two bands. In the posterior midline, there was another internal hemorrhoid that was banded in the same manner. Code the procedure.

A) 46948

B) 46221

C) 46945

D) 46930

Question 10. A neonatal male had an elective circumcision before being discharged home from the newborn nursery. The physician uses a ring block for the local anesthetic and the foreskin is placed over the glans. A clamp is selected for the size of the glans and a constricting circular ring is placed over the foreskin to compress and devascularize the foreskin. The devascularized foreskin is excised with a scalpel and the clamp is left in place. Which CPT® code should be used?

A) 54150

B) 54160

C) 54161

D) 54150-52

Question 11. A 30-year-old disabled Medicare patient is scheduled for surgery due to the discovery of what looks like an ovarian mass on the right ovary. On entering the abdomen, the surgeon finds an enlarged ovarian cyst on the right, but the ovary is otherwise normal. The left ovary is necrotic looking. The decision is made, based on the patient’s age, to remove the cyst from the right ovary and to remove the entire left ovary and fallopian tube. Code this encounter.

A) 58920, 58940-51

B) 58925, 58720-59

C) 58925-50, 58720-50-59

D) 58920-50, 58700-50-59

Question 12. The patient is a 25-year-old G2P1 female at 13-weeks with a molar pregnancy. She has had irregular bleeding for one week. Ultrasound was performed yesterday and the physician confirms a 16-week size uterus with hydatidiform molar pregnancy. She is admitted today for an evacuation and curettage. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes?

A) 59870, O01.9

B) 59812, O02.89

C) 57505, O02.0

D) 59160, O01.9

Question 13. A 55-year-old man with complaints of an elevated PSA of 6.5 presents to the outpatient surgical facility for prostate biopsies. The patient is placed in the lateral position. Some calcifications were found in the right lobe, with no obvious hypoechogenic abnormality. The base of the prostate was infiltrated and random needle biopsies were performed under ultrasonic guidance by the physician. His interpretation was reported in the record. What is (are) the CPT® code(s)?

A) 10005

B) 55706

C) 55700, 76942-26

D) 55705, 76942-26

Question 14. An injection is performed to anesthetize a nerve located between two ribs to block chest wall pain. Which CPT® nerve injection code is reported?

A) 64415

B) 64421

C) 64417

D) 64420

Question 15. A 65-year-old patient presented with ectropion of the right lower eyelid. Repair with tarsal wedge excision is performed for correction. Attention was then directed to the left eye. The patient also had an ectropion of the left lower lid, which was repaired by suture. Which CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?

A) 67916-50

B) 67916-E4, 67914-E2

C) 67914-50

D) 67923-E4, 67921-E2

Question 16. A 42-year-old patient was in the hospital three days ago in which a lumbar puncture was performed to find the etiology of the patient’s headaches. Today he is in the neurology clinic because after having the lumbar puncture the headaches have increased in intensity over the past three days. The neurologist examines the patient and finds a CSF leak from the lumbar puncture. A blood patch is performed by epidural injection to repair the leak. Code the CPT® code(s) for today’s visit.

A) 62272

B) 62273

C) 62270, 62273

D) 62270, 62282

Question 17. A 63-year-old woman presented to the eye clinic as with symptoms of flashing lights and floaters in the right eye for two days. The ophthalmologist dilates her eyes and checking her with an indirect ophthalmoscope, revealing peripheral retinal break. The physician explains to the patient that there is a high likelihood of retinal detachment. The patient agrees to have the procedure done. The physician lasers the retinal tear and tells the patient to come back in 24 hours for follow-up. The appropriate CPT® code for this visit is:

A) 67210

B) 67145

C) 67220

D) 67141

Question 18. The patient is a 35-year-old male who presents to the emergency department (ED) with symptoms of low back pain and mild nausea. The ED physician performs a medically appropriate history and examination. A urinalysis lab and CT of the abdomen is ordered. The results of the CT show two small kidney stones. The ED physician discusses the results with the patient and tells him the stones are small and will pass on their own. The patient is being discharged, with a prescription of pain medication. Final diagnosis is kidney stones.

Select the E/M code and diagnosis codes.

A) 99285, N20.0, M54.5, R11.2

B) 99283, M54.5, R11.2, N20.0

C) 99283, N20.0

D) -99285, N20.0

Question 19. A 63-year-old man wants a second opinion for his sleep apnea. He decides to go to Dr. S, who his neighbor referred him, to see if Dr. S can provide another type of treatment. Dr. S documents an appropriate history and exam. Patient has had the sleep apnea for the past five months. Sleep is disrupted by frequent awakenings and getting worse due to anxiety and snoring. Current medication that he is on now is not helping him. Which E/M category is reported for this encounter?

A) New Patient Office Visit (99202-99205)

B) Established Patient Office Visit (99211-99215)

C) Office Consultation (99241-99245)

D) Observation Care (99218-99220)

Question 20. A 55-year-old established patient is coming in for a pre-op visit; he is getting a liver transplant due to cirrhosis. The physician performs an appropriate history and examination. A moderate medical decision making is performed. Patient agrees with his physician’s recommendations and the transplantation will take place as scheduled. The patient expresses a number of concerns and questions for the prospective liver transplant. Physician documents in spending a total time of 60 minutes with the patient that includes answering questions and addressing his concerns regarding the surgery and discussing possible outcomes. What CPT® codes should be reported?

A) 99215, 99356

B) 99214, 99356

C) 99214, 99417

D) 99215, 99417

Question 21. A 56-year-old receives general anesthesia for an open pleura biopsy. An anesthesiologist medically directs two other cases, and medically directs a CRNA on this case. What are the anesthesia codes and modifiers reported for the anesthesiologist and CRNA?

A) 00540-AA, 00540-QZ

B) 00540-QK, 00540-QX

C) 00541-AA, 00540-QZ

D) 00541-QK, 00541-QX

Question 22. A patient is given general anesthesia by the anesthesiologist for a carpal tunnel nerve release. After the surgery the anesthesiologist is called to perform an axillary block for postoperative pain management on the same patient. What are the appropriate CPT® codes?

A) 01829-AA, 64417-59

B) 01840-AA, 64417-59

C) 01810-AA, 64417-59

D) 01830-AA, 64417-59

Question 23. A healthy 45-year-old is having a needle thyroid biopsy. The anesthesiologist begins to prepare the patient for surgery at 09:00 am. The surgery begins at 09:15 am and ends at 09:45 am. The anesthesiologist turns over the patient’s care to the recovery room nurse at 10:00 am. Which is the appropriate anesthesia code and what is the anesthesia time?

A) 00320, One hour

B) 00320, 45 minutes

C) 00322, 45 minutes

D) 00322, One hour

Question 24. A 32-year-old pregnant female has gestational diabetes at 34 weeks gestation. Her doctor is concerned about decreased fetal movement. The patient is sent to the radiology department of the hospital for a biophysical profile (BPP). The radiologist performs and interprets four elements scored by the ultrasound and it was reassuring, 8/8. A non-stress test will be performed by the obstetrician at the patient’s next office visit, not the radiologist. What is the correct CPT® code for the fetal profile performed by the radiologist?

A) 76818

B) 76815

C) 76819

D) 76820

Question 25. The physician performs a selective catheterization of the right renal artery and renal angiography. The puncture site was the right femoral artery. Which CPT® coding is reported?

A) 36251-RT, 36200-51, 75625-26

B) 36245-RT

C) 36215-RT, 36200-51, 75625-26

D) 36251-RT

Question 26. A patient with colon cancer receives five sessions of radiation treatments. During the course of treatments, the physician views the port films, reviews the treatment parameters, and assesses the patient’s response to the treatment. The patient receives two more treatment sessions when ending the course of treatment. What is the CPT® coding for the radiation treatment management?

A) 77427

B) 77431 x 7

C) 77427 x 7

D) 77427, 77431

Question 27. A surgical specimen was removed from the proximal jejunum during a resection for adenocarcinoma and was submitted to surgical pathology for gross and microscopic examination. The correct CPT® code for this service is:

A) 88307

B) 88309

C) 88304

D) 88305

Question 28. The physician performs the following tests on her automated equipment: HDL, total serum cholesterol, triglycerides, and a quantitative glucose. The correct CPT® codes for these lab tests are:

A) 83718, 82465, 84478, 82947

B) 83721, 82465, 82951

C) 80061, 82947

D) 80061, 82950

Question 29. A patient with a manic depressive disorder is being treated with lithium. The physician orders a therapeutic drug test to measure the level of lithium. What is the correct CPT® code?

A) 80178

B) 80375

C) 80306

D) 80299

Question 30. A patient presents to her oncologist’s office for schedule chemotherapy. The patient is severely dehydrated. The physician decides to schedule the chemotherapy for another day and orders hydration therapy to be performed today instead of the chemotherapy. The therapy is ordered and administered for one hour and 10 minutes. Select the appropriate CPT® code(s).

A) 96413-53, 96360

B) 96360

C) 96360, 96361

D) 96413, 96361

Question 31. Left heart catheterization retrograde from the femoral artery with injection procedures for selective coronary angiography and selective left ventriculography, including imaging supervision and interpretation with report, are performed. The cardiologist performed all of the services at the hospital. The CPT® code is:

A) 93458-26

B) 93459-26

C) 93452-26

D) 93460-26

Question 32. A patient is coming in to have osteopathic manipulative treatment (OMT) performed on two root lesions in his cervical region and three root lesions in the thoracic region. Which CPT® code is reported by the physician for the OMT?

A) 98927

B) 98940

C) 98925

D) 98942

Question 33. The patient is admitted to the hospital for an EEG to determine the focus of her cerebral seizures. The continous EEG recording is for 12 hours and no video is obtained. The physician reviews the recorded events, analyzes spike and seizure detection, interprets the data and writes the report. What CPT® code is reported?

A) 95705

B) 95712

C) 95718

D) 95717

Question 34. What is orchitis?

A) Inner ear imbalance

B) Lacrimal infection

C) Inflammation of testis

D) Inflammation of an ilioinguinal hernia

Question 35. The patient is a 16-year-old female with pelvic pain. Her ultrasound is normal. A laparoscopy found several small cysts in the area of the fallopian tubes. These cysts are called:

A) Pilonidal cysts

B) Myomas

C) Paratubal cysts

D) Synovial cysts

Question 36. Which one of the following patients might be documented as having meconium staining?

A) Woman with renal failure

B) Teenage boy with sickle cell anemia

C) Newborn with pneumonia

D) Man with alcoholic cirrhosis of liver

Question 37. Which of the following anatomical sites have septums?

A) Nose, heart

B) Kidney, lung

C) Sternum, coccyx

D) Orbit, ovary

Question 38. Lordosis is a disorder of which anatomical site?

A) Spine

B) Hand

C) Male genitalia

D) Nasal sinus

Question 39. A 35-year-old female returns to her primary care provider for follow up of an upper respiratory infection diagnosed the previous week. Her condition has not improved and her cough has increased. She has a long history of smoking and currently smokes one pack a day. She uses a bronchodilator for her chronic bronchitis which is caused by her smoking history. The physician changes her antibiotics to treat both her chronic and acute bronchitis. Provide the diagnosis codes for this visit.

A) J44.9, Z72.0

B) J20.9, J41.0, Z72.0

C) J20.9, Z72.0

D) J41.0, J20.9, Z72.0

Question 40. Following the MUGA scan, the physician documents that the patient has developed congestive heart failure as an adverse effect of the Trastuzumab she received as a treatment for her breast cancer. The trastuzumab antineoplastic antibiotic therapy is being discontinued while the heart failure management is attempted pharmaceutically. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

A) I50.9, T45.1X4A, Z85.3

B) I50.9, T45.1X1A, C50.919

C) I50.9, T45.1X5A, C50.919

D) I50.9, T45.1X3A, C50.919

Question 41. The patient has a history of symptomatic HIV and has been treated for an HIV related illness. Which ICD-10-CM code is reported?

A) Z21

B);B20

C) Z20.6

C) R75

Question 42. The mother, at 38-weeks gestation, advances to severe pre-eclampsia during labor. Fetal heart rate deceleration during contractions are not improved with the administration of oxygen, so a low transverse cesarean section is performed in the hospital. There is evidence of intrauterine growth retardation. The male infant weighs 1587 gm and has Apgars of 3 and 5. Select the ICD-10-CM codes for the newborn’s chart.

A) Z37.0, P00.0, P03.811, P05.9

B) Z38.01, P00.0, P03.810, P05.9

C) Z38.01, P00.0, P03.811, P05.9

D) Z37.0, P00.0, P03.810, P05.9

Question 43. What is the full CPT® code description for 61535?

A);Craniotomy with elevation of bone flap; for subdural implantation of an electrode array, for long-term seizure monitoring; for removal of epidural or subdural electrode array, without excision of cerebral tissue (separate procedure)

B) Craniotomy with elevation of bone flap; for removal of epidural or subdural electrode array, without excision of cerebral tissue (separate procedure)

C) For removal of epidural or subdural electrode array, without excision of cerebral tissue (separate procedure)

D) For excision of epileptogenic focus without electrocorticography during surgery; for removal of epidural or subdural electrode array, without excision of cerebral tissue (separate procedure)

Question 44. Which place of service code is reported for fracture care performed by an orthopedic physician in the ED?

A) 11

B) 20

C);22

D) 23

Question 45. A 67-year-old newly diagnosed with DM type 2 is being seen in the office today for dietetic training with the office’s dietitian. The training was for an hour and covered special diet instructions, blood glucose monitoring, and instruction on how to administer daily insulin injections. Which HCPCS Level II code(s) will be reported for this session?

A) G0108 x 2

B) G0109 x 2

C) A9275, A4211

D) S9214

Question 46. Which Z code category can ONLY be reported as a first listed diagnosis code?

A) Z67

B) Z69

C) Z58

D) Z02

Question 47. Which one of the following is an example of fraud?

A);Reporting the code for ultrasound guidance when used to perform a liver biopsy

B) Reporting a biopsy and excision performed on the same skin lesion during the same encounter

C) Failing to append modifier 26 on an X-ray that is performed and interpreted in the physician’s office

D) Reporting a lab panel with an additional lab test that is not included in the lab panel

Question 48. Preoperative Diagnosis: Hypertrophic Scar

Postoperative Diagnosis: Hypertrophic Scar

Procedure: Surgical preparation and split-thickness graft

Indications: Patient has a hypertrophic scar on the posterior side of the left leg, at the level of the knee. This has begun to restrict his mobility. His physical therapy trial was unsuccessful.

Procedure Description: After the proper induction of anesthesia, the subcutaneous tissue of the patient’s left leg beneath the scar was infiltrated with crystalloid solution containing epinephrine to minimize blood loss. The scar was then excised down to viable dermis. Hemostasis was obtained with epinephrine soaked pads. Skin was harvested from the patient’s thigh in a split thickness fashion and was used to cover the 90 sq cm defect created by the surgery. The graft was secured with skin staples, and then dressed with fine mesh gauze followed by medication-soaked gauze. The donor site was dressed with mesh followed by Adaptic™, followed by a dry dressing and an Ace wrap.

What CPT® codes are reported?

A) 15110-52, 15002

B) 15100, 11406

C) 15100, 15002

D) 15110, 15002

Question 49. OPERATION: Dual chamber transvenous implantable pacing cardioverter-defibrillator system implantation with leads.

INDICATIONS: A 67 year-old, white gentleman has significant underlying ischemic cardiomyopathy with EF of 25 percent, prior infarcts, remote history of syncope, and at a high risk for malignant ventricular arrhythmias. He has had a recent T wave alternans test which was clearly abnormal. He has had episodes of resting bradycardia, also noted. He meets Madit II criteria for insertion of a transvenous implantable pacing cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD).

PROCEDURE DESCRIPTION: After informed consent had been obtained, the patient was brought to the outpatient hospital lab in the fasting state. The left anterior chest was prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. Intravenous sedation and local anesthetic were given. After local anesthetic, a 5 cm incision was made at the left deltopectoral groove. With blunt dissection and cautery, this was carried down through the prepectoralis fascia. The cephalic vein was identified and ligated distally. Through the venotomy, a subclavian venogram was performed to provide a roadmap. The atrial and ventricular leads were then advanced into the vessel to the level of the right atrium under fluoroscopic guidance. The ventricular lead was maneuvered to the right ventricular outflow tract, and then through the RV apex where it was actively fixed. Good sensing and pacing thresholds were demonstrated. The lead was anchored to the pre-pectoralis fascia with interrupted 2-0 Tycron sutures. 10-volt pacing did not result in diaphragmatic capture. The atrial lead was maneuvered to the anterolateral right atrial wall where it was actively fixed. Good sensing and pacing thresholds were demonstrated. The lead was anchored to the pre-pectoralis fascia with interrupted 2-0 Tycron sutures. 10-volt pacing did not result in diaphragmatic capture. A subcutaneous pocket was created with good hemostasis achieved. The pocket was subsequently irrigated with solution of Bacitracin. The generator was connected to the lead, and then placed in the pocket with no tension on the lead. The deep fascial layer was closed with interrupted 2-0 Vicryl suture. The subcutaneous closure was made with running 3-0 Vicryl suture. Subcuticular closure was made with running 4-0 Vicryl suture. Steri-strips were applied. Ventricular fibrillation was induced with a T wave shock. This was successfully sensed and terminated with a 15 joule shock to sinus rhythm. High voltage impedance was 39 ohms. Dry dressing was placed over the wound. The patient returned to the floor in stable condition without apparent complications.

Which CPT® coding is reported?

A) 33208

B) 33249, 76000-26

C) 33241, 33243, 33249

D) 33249

Question 50. Procedure: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram with stent placement and antral biopsy.

Indications: 50 year-old male who underwent liver transplantation for end-stage liver disease secondary to chronic hepatitis C and hepatocellular carcinoma in 01/2007. The patient has cholestatic liver enzymes, requiring ERCP before placement of a 7-French 12 cm stent and to evaluate the biliary system.

Description of Procedure: The patient was taken to the fluoroscopy suite in the GI lab where he was found to be alert and oriented x 3. After discussing risks and benefits of the procedure, informed consent was obtained. Patient was kept in the semi prone position. After adequate conscious sedation, an Olympus side-viewing therapeutic scope was inserted through the mouth all the way to the second portion of the duodenum. Then, the common bile duct was cannulated and the cholangiogram was obtained. After the fluoroscopy evaluation of the cholangiogram a 12 cm stent was deployed for biliary drainage. A biopsy from the antrum was obtained. The patient tolerated the procedure well. There were no immediate complications.

Which CPT® codes are reported?

A) 43276, 43261-51

B) 43274, 43261-51

C) 43266, 43239-51

D) 43212, 43202-51

Answeers ___________

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