CPC Questions Paper For Practice Part-2

 

CPC Questions Paper For Practice Part-2 : In this article, we collect important questions related to all series for cpc exams. This Questions is very important for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam. In this article we collect 50 questions in which cover all series questions and answers . This Test Series is very important for your cpc exam. In cpc exam total 100 questions come but in this artficle we provide 50 questions for practice , CPC exam mock questions .For CPC exam practice is very must to get 70% in exam, i will provide back to back questions and answers for cpc exam in the website. CPC Exam Questions is very tricky , if you read carefully questions then you get right answers and get marks.

 

The AAPC’s Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam is currently the gold standard of coding certifications. Let’s take a look at this certification exam now.

 

Question 1. The left breast was prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. An incision from the 3 around to the 9 o’clock position on the areolar border on its inferior aspect was made in the skin and extended to the subcutaneous tissue. The breast mass was excised by sharp dissection. The mass was found to be approximately 1.5 – 2 cm in maximum dimension.  Hemostasis was made adequate using electrocautery and the Argon beam coagulator. After this was accomplished, the skin margins were reapproximated with running inverted 3-0 Vicryl subcuticular suture. Select the procedure and diagnosis codes. 

A) 19120, N63.20

B) 19301, D49.3

C) 19125, N60.82

D)19101, N64.51

 

Question 2.  A 50-year-old female saw her dermatologist for removal of a basal cell carcinoma on her right arm. An 8.0 cm lesion that included the margins was drawn out and a 15-blade scalpel was used for full excision of the lesion. A layered closure was performed after the removal. The specimen was sent for permanent histopathologic examination. What CPT® coding is reported?

A) 11606

B) 11606, 12004-51

C) 11606, 12034-51

D) 11606, 13121-51, 13122

 

Question 3.  A 25-year-old male has a ruptured distal biceps tendon at the proximal end of the radius. An incision is made overlying the antecubital fossa. The biceps tendon was tagged using #1 Vicryl-suture. The second incision made on the superior border of the ulna. The supinator was incised deep to expose the radial tuberosity.  Drill holes are made at the radial tuberosity in which sutures and the distal biceps tendon are placed in the hole of the radial tuberosity. Two sutures are placed in the biceps tendon in horizontal mattress type fashion pulled tight and secured. The distal biceps tendon is reattached to the radius to restore elbow function. Closure was then accomplished with sutures and staples. What is the correct code for this procedure?

A) 24342

B) 24340

C) 23430

D) 23440

 

Question 4.  Patient complains of chronic/acute arm and shoulder pain following bilateral carpal tunnel surgery. Patient is followed by pain management for over a year. Physician finally diagnoses patient with reflex dystrophy syndrome (RSD). Physician performs six trigger point injections into four muscle groups. How is this encounter reported?

A) 20552

B) 20553 x 6

C) 20551 x 6

D) 20553

 

Question 5.  A Grade I, high velocity type 1 open right femur shaft fracture was incurred when a 15 year-old female pedestrian was hit by a car. She was taken to the operating room within four hours of her injury for thorough irrigation and debridement, including excision of devitalized bone. The patient was then reprepped, redraped, and repositioned. Intramedullary rodding was then carried out with proximal and distal locking screws. What are the correct codes for this diagnosis and procedure?

A);27506, 11044-51, S72.301B, V03.90XXA, Y93.01

B);27506, 11012-51, S72.301B, V03.90XXA, Y93.01

C);27507, 11012-51, S72.301A, V03.90XXA, Y93.01

D);27507, 11044-51, S72.91XA, V03.90XXA, Y93.01

 

Question 6.  This 25-year-old male presents with deviated nasal septum. After intubation, a left hemitransfixion incision was made with elevation of the mucoperichondrium. Cartilage from the bony septum was detached and the nasoseptum was realigned and removed in a piecemeal fashion from the obstructed perpendicular plate of the ethmoid. Thereafter, 4-0 chronic was used to approximate mucous membranes.  A small amount of silver nitrate cautery was used to achieve hemostasis. A dressing consisted of a fold of Telfa with a ventilating tube for nasal airway on each side achieved good hemostasis, patient went to recovery in good condition. What is the correct CPT® code for this procedure?

A) 30520

B) 30420

C) 30620

D)!30450

 

Question 7.  A 67-year-old female has CAD, atrial fibrillation, claudication and several chronic conditions that have been marginally controlled with medication. The doctor decided that the benefits outweigh the risks for her having a single vessel cardiopulmonary bypass using an arterial graft. Her medication Heparin has been stopped for several days. She was admitted in the hospital a day before the surgery. In the operating room, general anesthesia was administered. After the chest is opened the patient begins to hemorrhage and drops in blood pressure. The decision is made to stop the procedure and close the chest. How is this service coded?

A)!Service is not coded due to not completing the procedure

B);33533-52

C) 33533-74

D) 33533-53

 

Question 8.  Mr. Y presents to outpatient surgery for placement of a dual chamber pacemaker after multiple attempts to manage his bradycardia medically. Atrial and ventricular leads were placed under fluoroscopic guidance via the subclavian vein. Testing confirmed appropriate placement and conduction. The left chest was then infiltrated with epinephrine and a pocket was opened for placement of the generator. The leads were attached to the generator and the generator was programmed. Appropriate pacing was confirmed. The skin pocket was closed in layers and dressing placed. Select the appropriate CPT® code(s).

A) 33208

B) 33213, 33217

C) 33235, 33208

D) 33214

 

Question 9.  A 62-year-old female with three-vessel disease and supraventricular tachycardia, which has been refractory to other management. She previously had pacemaker placement and stenting of the coronary artery stenosis, which has failed to solve the problem. She will undergo CABG with autologous saphenous vein and a modified MAZE procedure to treat the tachycardia. The risks and benefits have been discussed and the patient wishes to proceed. She is brought to the cardiac OR and placed supine on the OR table. She is prepped and draped and adequate endotracheal anesthesia is assured. A median sternotomy incision is made and cardiopulmonary bypass is initiated. The endoscope is used to harvest an adequate length of saphenous vein from her left leg. This is uneventful and bleeding is easily controlled. The vein graft is prepared and cut to the appropriate lengths for anastomosis. Three bypasses are performed, one to the LAD, one to the circumflex and another distally on the circumflex. A modified MAZE procedure was then performed and the patient was weaned from bypass. Once the heart was once beating on its own again, we attempted to induce an arrhythmia and this could not be done. At this point, the sternum was closed with wires and the skin reapproximated with staples. The patient tolerated the procedure without difficulty and was taken to the PACU. Choose the procedure codes for this service.

A) 33512, 33254-51, 33508

B) 33535, 33254-51, 33508

C) 33512, 33257, 33508

D) 33512, 33257-51, 33508-51

 

Question 10.  A patient comes in for surgery today to address complications from his previous partial enterectomy performed 5 months ago. Upon reopening the patient’s previous incision the surgeon resected the ileum and a portion of the colon. An ileocolostomy was performed to complete the procedure with no complications. The appropriate CPT® code to report is:

A) 44144

B) 44160

C) 44150

D) 44205

 

Question 11.  A patient with esophageal cancer is brought to the OR for subtotal esophagectomy. A thoracotomy incision is made and the esophagus is identified. The tumor is carefully dissected free of the surrounding structures. No invasion of the aorta or IVC is identified. The cervical esophagus is controlled with pursestring sutures and then transected above the sternal notch. The esophagus is then dissected free of the stomach and the entire specimen is removed from the chest cavity and sent to pathology. The stomach is then pulled into the chest cavity and anastomosed to the remaining cervical esophageal stump. The anastomosis is tested for patency and no leaks are found. Hemostasis is assured. The chest is examined for any signs of additional disease but is grossly free of cancer. The chest is closed in layers and a chest tube is place through a separate stab incision. The patient tolerated the procedure well and was taken to the PACU in stable condition. What CPT® code is reported?

A) 43101

B)!43117

C) 43107

D) 43112

 

Question 12.  A 55-year-old male presents to the outpatient surgery center for ERCP with cholangiography. A stricture of the common bile duct is found and the decision is made to perform balloon dilation and placed two side-by-side stents in the common bile duct. What CPT®  coding is reported?

A) 43277, 43274

B) 43275 x 2, 43274 x 2

C) 43276

D) 43274, 43274-59

 

Question 13.  Newborn male is scheduled for a circumcision. He is sterilely prepped and draped; a penile nerve block is performed. The circumcision is performed by a ring device. Hemostasis is achieved. Vaseline Gauze dressing applied. Patient tolerated the procedure well. How is this encounter coded?

A) 54160

B) 54150

C) 54161, 64450

D) 54150, 64450

 

Question 14.  A laparoscopic assisted total hysterectomy is planned for a patient who has severe intramural fibroids. After inserting the laparoscope, extensive adhesions are noted to the extent that the ligaments supporting the uterus cannot be visualized. The physician decides to convert the procedure to an open abdominal hysterectomy in which the uterus and cervix are removed. What CPT® coding is reported?

A) 58262, 58570-53

B) 58150

C) 58260, 58550-22

D) 58570

 

Question 15.  Patient has consented for further testing to determine the extent of her cervical dysplasia. A cervical cone biopsy of endocervical tissue was cut using a laser. It was tagged with a single stitch. Dilation and curettage was performed. Small amount of tissue was obtained and sent to pathology.  Which procedure code(s) is (are) reported?

A) 57520, 58120

B) 57461

C) 57520

D) 57500, 57505

 

Question 16.  A 58-year-old female has lumbar degenerative spondylolisthesis with severe stenosis and instability. The spinous process of L4 and L5 are decompressed bilaterally by performing a laminectomies, right-sided foraminotomies and then left-sided facetectomy completely decompressing the nerve roots as well as the dura. How is this procedure reported?

A) 63047, 63048

B) 63030-50, 63035 x 2

C) 63017

D) 63047-50, 63048-50

 

Question 17.  Physician is performing an intracapsular cataract extraction. The anterior chamber of the eye is entered performing an anterior capsulotomy using forceps. The lens nucleus was hydrodissected and loosened. Using phacoemulsification unit, the lens nucleus was divided and emulsified. Cortical and capsular fragments were removed. The anterior chamber and capsule bag inflated. Using lens inserter an intraocular lens prosthesis, Cystalens, was inserted and rotated to the horizontal position. Topical solution applied, conjunctiva repositioned over the wound with wet field cautery and patch applied. Which CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?

 A) 66984, 66985

B) 66983, 66985

C) 66985

D) 66983

 

Question 18.  Physician performs a medical review and documentation on an 83 year-old patient who has been in the hospital for the last two days with confusion A medically appropriate exam where she is alert and oriented x 3 today. The physician ordered an echocardiogram and to continue IV fluids. Physician also speaks to another physician going over the test results and on further treatment for the patient. Patient is not safe to return home.

What is the level for amount and/or complexity of data to be reviewed and analyzed for medical decision making in Evaluation and Management Services?

A) Minimal or None

B) Limited

C) Moderate

D) Extensive

 

Question 19.  A plastic surgeon is called to the ED at the request of the emergency department physician to evaluate a patient that arrived with multiple facial fractures that may need surgery. Patient was in an automobile accident and an opinion is needed for reconstructive surgery. The plastic surgeon arrives at the ED, obtains a medically appropriate history and exam. The plastic surgeon decides that the patient needs major surgery to repair the injuries. Written report is sent to the ED physician. The plastic surgeon schedules the patient for major surgery the next day and documents her full note with findings in the ED chart.

The E/M service reported by the plastic surgeon is:

A) 99284-57

B) 99244-32

C) 99244-57

D) 99284-32

 

Question 20.  At the request of the mother’s obstetrician, a neonatologist is called to attend the birth of an infant being delivered at 29 weeks gestation. During delivery, the neonate was pale and bradycardic needing resuscitation. Neonatologist performs the suctioning and bag ventilation on this 1000 gram neonate was performed with 100 percent oxygen. Bradycardia worsened, requiring endotracheal intubation and insertion of an umbilical line for fluid resuscitation. Later this critically ill neonate was moved from the delivery room and admitted to the NICU with severe respiratory distress and continued hypotension. What are the appropriate procedure codes reported by the neonatologist?

A) 99465, 99468

B) 99465, 99464, 99468-25, 31500-59, 36510-59

C) 99468, 99464

D) 99465, 99468-25, 31500-59, 36510-59

 

Question 21.  Patient is admitted in labor for delivery. She received a labor neuraxial epidural for a vaginal delivery. The baby goes into fetal distress and a cesarean section is performed. Following delivery the patient starts to hemorrhage. The physician decides, with family approval, to perform a hysterectomy. Code the anesthesia services.

A)!01967, 00840

B) 01962

C) 01968

D) 01967, 01969

 

Question 22.  Angiograms reveal three artery blockages. The patient has COPD, which is a severe systemic disease. The patient undergoes a CABG X 3 venous grafts on cardiopulmonary bypass and cell saver. Code the anesthesia service.

A) 00562-P3

B) 00560-P4

C) 00567-P3

D) 00566-P4

 

Question 23.  A healthy 11-month-old patient with bilateral cleft lip and palate undergoes surgery. The surgeon performs a bilateral cleft lip repair, single stage. Code the anesthesia service.

A) 00170-P1, 99100

B) 00102-P1

C) 00102-P1, 99100

D) 00170-P1

 

Question 24.  A patient with lower back pain and leg pain is scheduled for a MRI of lumbar spine without contrast. Following the MRI, the patient is diagnosed with spinal stenosis of the lumbar region. What are the procedure and diagnosis codes?

A) 72020-26, M54.50, M79.606, M48.061

B) 72149-26, M48.061

C) 72148-26, M48.061

D) 72158-26, M48.07, M54.50, M79.606

 

Question 25.  A 22-year-old driver lost control of her car and crashed into a light pole on the highway.  She arrived at the hospital. She had CT scans without contrast of the brain and chest. She had X-rays of AP and PA views of her left ribs and AP and PA views of her right ribs with a posteroanterior view of the chest. The CT scan of the brain showed a fracture of the skull base with no hemorrhage of the brain. The CT of the lung showed no puncture of the lungs. The X-ray showed fractures in the right and left second, third, and fifth ribs. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

A) 70450-26, 71250-26, 71101-26, S02.109A, S22.43XA, V47.32XA, Y92.411

B) 70460-26, 71260-26, 71110-26, S02.01XA, S22.49XB V47.0XXA, Y92.411

C) 70450-26, 71250-26, 71111-26, 71045-26, S01.109A, S22.49XA, V47.32XA, Y92.411

D) 70450-26, 71250-26, 71111-26, S02.109A, S22.43XA, V47.5XXA, Y92.411

 

Question 26.  The physician orders an ultrasound on a patient 25 weeks pregnant with twins to access fetal heart rate and fetal position. Select the code(s).

A) 76805, 76810

B) 76811, 76812

C) 76816 x 2

D) 76815

 

Question 27.  A patient presents to the ED with crushing chest pain radiating down the left arm and up under the chin. There are elevated S-T segments on EKG. The cardiologist sees and admits the patient to CCU. He orders three serial CPK enzymes levels with instructions that the tests are also to be done with isoenzymes if the initial tests are elevated for that date of service. The CPK enzyme levels were elevated. The lab codes are:

A) 82550, 82552, 82550-76 x 2, 82552-76 x 2

B) 82550, 82552, 82552-91 x 2

C) 82550, 82550-91 x 2, 82552, 82552-91 x 2

D) 82550 x 3, 82554 x 3

 

Question 28.  A 22-year-old has had no prenatal care. Fundal height indicates a term fetus and by dates it is determined she is 38 weeks pregnant. Few hours prior to admission to Labor and Delivery her membranes ruptured spontaneously. She does not have fever, but the physician performs a rapid antigen test for group B strep. An enzyme immunoassay method is performed. Physician obtains a lower vaginal swab, then observes that it visually shows the patient is negative for the antigen. If clinical risk factors appear, intrapartum antibiotics will be initiated. Which lab test is reported?

A);87802

B) 87653

C) 86317

D) 87899

 

Question 29.  The patient presents with burning urination and frequency. The physician performs a UA dipstick, which shows elevated WBC. He orders a urine culture with identification for each isolate to determine which antibiotic to give to the patient for the infection. What are the appropriate lab codes?

A) 81000, 81007

B) 81002, 87088

C) 81001, 87086

D) 87086, 87088

 

Question 30.  Which of the following coding combinations is an example of unbundling?

A) 80048, 80061

B) 80076, 80305

C) 80061, 83718, 84478

D) 82310, 82355, 82374

 

Question 31.  A 69-year-old female has been having chest tightness. Cardiologist performs a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PCTA) of the right coronary artery and left anterior descending coronary artery. The procedure revealed atherosclerosis in the native vessel of the left anterior descending coronary artery and right coronary artery. Stents were inserted in both arteries to keep the arteries opened. Patient was placed under moderate conscious sedation by the anesthesiologist during the procedure for a total of 30 minutes. What CPT® codes are reported for the cardiologist?

A) 92928-LT, 92929-RT

B) 92928-LD, 92929-RC, 99152, 99153

C) 92928-LD, 92928-RC

D) 92928-LD, 92928-RC, 99152, 99153

 

Question 32.  A two-month-old returns for a well child check and several shots (Rota, DTaP-HepB-IPV, Pneumococcal PCV13) with her pediatrician. He offers suggestions to the mom, completes the exam, and counsels her on the vaccinations. How should this be coded?

A) 99391-25, 90460, 90461 x 2, 90680, 90723, 90670

B) 99381-25, 90471, 90472 x 2, 90474, 90680, 90700, 90648, 90670

C) 99381-25, 90471, 90472 x 3, 90680, 90723, 90670

D) 99391-25, 90460 x 3, 90461 x 4, 90680, 90723, 90670

 

Question 33. Mary, who has food allergies, came to her physician for her weekly allergen immune therapy that consists of two injections prepared and provided by the physician. The correct code is:

A) 95125

B) 95117

C) 95144

D) 95146

 

Question 34.  While playing softball a 12-year-old boy sustains a blowout fracture. What is the anatomical location of a blowout fracture?

A) Orbit

B) Clavicle

C) Patella

D) Femur

 

Question 35.  A pediatrician examines an adolescent that has a thoracic curvature of the spine which is called:

A) Sclerosis

B) Osteochondrosis

C) Kyphosis

D) Neurofibromatosis

 

Question 36.  The root metr/o means:

A) Menstruation

B) Breast

C) Mammary gland

D) Uterus

 

Question 37.  According to the CPT® Appendix L, when performing a selective vascular catheterization, which vessels would you pass through to place the catheter into the right middle cerebral artery?

A) Innominate, right common carotid, right exteranl carotid

B) Innominate, right subclavian & axillary

C) Left common carotid, left internal carotid

D) Innominate, the right common, and internal carotid

 

Question 38.  A 42-year-old male was previously treated with external fixation of an ankle trimalleolar fracture. He is now presenting with a nonunion fracture of the trimalleolar.  What is the ICD-10-CM code to report?

A) S82.853D

B) S82.853S

C) S82.853K

D) S82.53XA

 

Question 39.  Mr. Jones is here today to receive an intercostal nerve block to mitigate the debilitating pain of his malignancy. His treatment is for the cancer that has metastasized to his right lung. Select the appropriate ICD-10-CM codes.

A) G89.3, C78.01

B) C34.91, G89.3

C) G89.3, C34.91

D) C78.01, G89.3

 

Question 40.  A Year-old female presents to the office with ongoing history of diabetes which has been controlled with insulin. During the exam the physician notes that gangrene has set in due to the diabetes on her left great toe. Patient is recommended to see a general surgeon for treatment of the gangrene on her left great toe. Select the diagnosis codes to report.

A);E10.610, Z79.4

B) E11.52, Z79.4

C) E10.52, Z79.2

D) E11.610, Z79.2

 

Question 41.  A 32-year-old delivered a baby girl one week ago via cesarean section. She is in the obstetrician’s office with complaint of her cesarean wound bleeding. The wound is cleaned and a small hematoma removed. The edges are pulled with steri-strips, and a clean dressing is applied. What ICD-10-CM code should be reported?

A) L76.02

B) O90.1

C) O90.2

D) O82

 

Question 42.  A 70-year-old had fallen breaking her jaw. She has had difficulty eating after having her jaw wired. Her doctor ordered a stationary parenteral nutrition infusion pump for her TPN. A seven day supply of a parenteral home mix nutrition supply kit was also given. What HCPCS Level II codes are reported?

A) B9002, B4220 x 7

B) B9004, B4222

C) B9006, B4222 x 7

D) B9006, B4172

 

Question 43.  A patient has an insulin pump of 100 units. The pump is filled. Which HCPCS Level II code reports the supply?

A) J1817

B) J1815 x 20

C) J1817 x 2

D) J1835

 

Question 44.  Which one of the following statements regarding advanced beneficiary notices (ABN) is TRUE?

A) ABN must specify only the CPT® code that Medicare is expected to deny.

B) Generic ABN which states that a Medicare denial of payment is possible, or the internist is unaware whether Medicare will deny payment or not is acceptable.

C) An ABN must be completed before delivery of items or services are provided.

D) An ABN must be obtained from a patient even in a medical emergency when the services to be provided are not covered.

 

Question 45.  Which service is covered by Medicare Part B?

A) Inpatient chemotherapy

B) Minor surgery performed in a physician’s office

C) Routine dental care

D) Assisted living facility

 

Question 46.  When coding for a patient who has had a primary malignancy of the thyroid cartilage that was completely excised a year ago, which one of the following statements is TRUE?

A) When the cancer is surgically removed with no further treatment provided and there is no evidence of any existing primary malignancy, code Z85.850.

B) When further treatment is provided and there is evidence of an existing metastasis, code first Z85.850 and then C32.9.

C) Any mention of extension, invasion, or metastasis to another site is coded as a D49.1, Z85.850.

D) When the cancer is surgically removed but the patient is receiving chemotherapy treatment report Z85.850.

 

Question 47.  In order to use the critical care codes, which statement is TRUE?

A) Critical care services can be provided in an internist’s office

B) Critical care services provided for more than 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes should be billed with 99291 and modifier 52.

C) Time spent reviewing laboratory test results or discussing the critically ill patient’s care with other medical staff in the unit or at the nursing station on the floor cannot be included in the determination of critical care time.

D) Critical care services are never reported with endotracheal intubation (31500)

Physician can provide services to another patient during the same time providing critical care services to a critically ill patient

 

Question 48.  Preoperative Diagnosis: Full-thickness burns

Postoperative Diagnosis: Full-thickness burns

Procedure: Full-thickness burns excised and covered with xenograft (skin substitute graft)

Indications: A 15-year-old boy was burned in a fire and assessed to have received burns to 75 percent of his total body surface area. He was transferred to a burn center for definitive treatment. Once stable, he was brought to the OR. Due to extent of the patient’s burns and lack of sufficient donor sites, his full-thickness burns will be excised and covered with xenograft (skin substitute graft), and a split-thickness skin biopsy will be harvested for preparation of autologous grafts to be applied in the coming weeks, when available. 

Procedure Description: After induction of anesthesia, extensive debridement of the full-thickness burns was undertaken. Attention was first directed to the patient’s face, neck, and scalp. A total of 500 sq cm in this area received full-thickness burns. The eschar involving this area was excised down to viable tissue. Hemostasis was achieved using electrocautery. Attention was then turned to the trunk. A total of 950 sq cm in this area received full-thickness burns. The eschar involving this area was excised down to viable tissue. Hemostasis was achieved. Attention was then turned to the arms and legs. A total of 725 sq cm received full-thickness burns. The eschar involving this area was excised down to viable tissue. Hemostasis was achieved. Attention was then turned to the hands and feet. A total of 300 sq cm in this area received full-thickness burns. The eschar involving this area was excised down to viable tissue. All involved areas were then covered with xenograft. Finally a split thickness skin graft of 0.015 inches in depth was harvested using a dermatome from a separate donor site. A total of 85 sq cm was recovered. 

What procedures codes are reported?

A) 15200, 15201 x 123, 15004, 15005, 15002, 15003

B) 15275, 15276 x 31, 15271, 15272 x 66, 15004, 15005 x 16, 15002, 15003 x 7

C) 15277, 15278 x 7, 15273, 15274 x 16, 15004, 15005 x 7, 15002, 15003 x 16, 15040

D) 15130, 15131 x 7, 15135, 15136 x 16, 15004, 15005 x 7, 15002, 15003 x 16

 

Question 49.  PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: History of prior colon polyps 

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Colon polyps, diverticulosis, hemorrhoids

PROCEDURE: Colonoscopy

PROCEDURE DESCRIPTION: After sedation was provided by the anesthesiologist, a rectal exam was performed by the gastroenterologist and revealed small external hemorrhoids. The video colonoscope was passed without difficulty from anus to cecum. The colon was well prepped. The instrument was slowly withdrawn with good views obtained throughout. There was a 3 mm polyp in the proximal ascending colon. This polyp was removed with hot biopsy forceps and retrieved. There was a 4 mm rectal polyp located 10 cm from the anus in the proximal rectum. The polyp was removed by hot biopsy forceps. There was also moderate diverticulosis extending from the hepatic flexure to the distal sigmoid colon. 

What CPT® coding is reported?

A) 45384

B) 45385

C) 45388

D) 45384 x 2, 45378-59

 

Question 50. Preoperative Diagnosis: Hydrocephalus

Postoperative Diagnosis: Hydrocephalus

Procedure: Replacement of shunt valve with medium pressure ventriculo-peritoneal shunt assembly with in-line 0-25 Aesculap Shunt Assistant Implant ICP Monitor.  

Procedure Description: After obtaining general anesthesia, patient prepped and draped. Right parietal scalp incision was reopened and shunt catheter identified. The shunt reservoir was delivered from the wound and the distal catheter freed from it. Abdominal incision reopened, shunt passer was used to bring the distal catheter from the head wound to the abdominal wound. The old ventricular catheter was removed. A new ventricular-catheter was inserted into the tract of the old catheter and fed, good flow seen. It was then attached to the shunt reservoir that was then seated after attaching a 0-25 shunt assistant valve to it. The distal catheter was then fed into the peritoneal cavity. Subcutaneous tissues were closed in multi-layer fashion and skin with staples. Patient tolerated the procedure well and taken to PICU in stable condition. 

What CPT® codes are reported?

A) 62223, 62225-51

B) 62258, 62160

C) 62230, 62225-51

D) 62256, 62225-51

 

ANSWERS ———————————————————————————

 

1.       A 2.       C 3.       B

4.       D

5.       B

6.       A

7.       D

8.       A

9.       C

10.   B

11.   D

12.   D

13.   B

14.   B

15.   C

16.   A

17.   D

18.   C

19.   C

20.   D

21.   D

22.   C

23.   C

24.   C

25.   D

26.   D

27.   C

28.   A

29.   B

30.   C

31.   C

32.   A

33.   A

34.   A

35.   C

36.   D

37.   D

38.   C

39.   A

40.   B

41.   C

42.   C

43.   C

44.   C

45.   B

46.   A

47.   A

48.   C

49.   A

50.   C

 

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CPC Questions Paper For Practice Part-1 : https://medicopediaa.com/cpt-anesthesia-series-question/

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CPC Mock Questions Paper Series Wise

150 Questions set for practice : https://medicopediaa.com/cpc-mock-questions-paper-series-wise/

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