Top 30 CPC Exam Questions with Answers (2026) – Most Important Practice for Medical Coding Certification
Welcome To Medico Pediaa :- If you’re preparing for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam in 2026, practicing the right questions can make all the difference. The CPC certification is one of the most recognized credentials in the medical coding industry, especially in the United States and India, where demand for skilled coders is growing rapidly.
In this guide, we have compiled the top 30 most important CPC exam questions with answers that are frequently asked in real exams and practice tests. Whether you’re a beginner or an experienced coder looking to refresh your knowledge, these questions will help you understand key concepts like CPT coding, ICD-10 guidelines, modifiers, and medical billing processes.
This practice set is designed to boost your confidence, improve accuracy, and help you pass the CPC exam on your first attempt. Let’s get started with the most expected and high-impact questions for 2026.
Let’s Start :-
Q1. A 55 Year-old established patient presents for follow-up of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. The physician performs a detailed history, detailed exam, and moderate medical decision making. Total physician time is 32 minutes.Which CPT® code is correct?
Α. 99213
Β. 99214
C. 99215
D. 99212
Q2. Which is the best explanation of Medicare coverage?
A. The program is exclusive to beneficiaries age 65 and older
B. The program is administered by the states for low income individuals
C. The coverage depends on sources of income exclusive of medical condition or other factors
D. The program provides coverage for people age 65 or older, some people under age 65 with esrd disabilities and people with ESRD
Q3. Which of the following Medicare plans refers to the prescription drug benefit?
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part B
C. Medicare Part C
D. Medicare Part D
Q4. What does the OIG release annually and identifies areas they will focus on for review and investigations they believe are the most vulnerable programs for possible fraud/abuse?
A. Compliance Plan
B. HIPAA plans
C. Work Plan
D. ZPIC’s
Q5. Which of the following federal acts specifically forbids conspiracy to file a false claim or fraudulent claim with the government?
A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
B. Social Security Act
C. False Claims Act
D. Medicare Modernization Act
Q6.Which of the following statements regarding the ICD-10-CM coding conventions is TRUEZ
A. If the same condition is described as both acute and chronic and separate subentries exist in the Alphabetic Index at the same indentation level, code only the acute condition.
B. Sequela (Late effect) codes are reported for a current acute phase of the injury or illness
C. An ICD-10-CM code is still valid even if it has not been coded to the full number of chefacters required for that code.
D.-Signs and symptoms that are integral to the disease process should not be assigned as additional codes, unless otherwise instructed
Q7.In order to use the critical care codes, which statement is TRUE?
A. Critical care services can be provided in an internist’s office
B. Critical care services provided for more than 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes should be billed with 99291 and modifier 52.
C. Time spent reviewing laboratory test results or discussing the critically ill patient’s care with other medical staff in the unit or at the nursing station on the floor cannot be included in the determination of critical care time.
D. Physician can provide services to another patient during the same time providing critical care services to a critically ill patient
Q8.What is the full CPT code description for 615357
A. Craniotomy with elevation of bone flap; for subdural implantation of an electrode array, for long-term seizure monitoring; for removal of epidural or subdural electrode array, without excision of cerebral tissue (separate procedure)
B. Craniotomy with elevation of bone flap; for removal of epidural or subdural electrode array, without excision of cerebral tissue (separate procedure)
C. For removal of epidural or subdural electrode array, without excision of cerebral tissue (separate procedure)
D. For excision of epileptogenic focus without electrocorticography during surgery; for removal of epidural or subdural electrode array, without excision of cerebral tissue (separate procedure)
Q9. Which statement is TRUE when reporting pregnancy codes (000-0904)
A. These codes can be used on the maternal and baby records.
B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters.
C. Code Z33.1 should always be reported with these codes.
D. The seventh character assigned to these codes only indicate a complication during the pregnancy.
Q10. Which of the following is TRUE about reporting codes for diabetes mellitus?
A. If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default type is E11 Type 2 diabetes mellitus.
B. When a patient uses insulin, Type 1 is always reported.
C. The age of the patient is a sole determining factor to report Type 1.
D. When assigning codes for diabetes and its associated condition(s), the code(s) from category E08-E13 are not reported as a primary code.
Q11. Which of the following is an example of a case in which a diabetes-related problem exists and the code for diabetes is never sequenced first?
A. If the patient has an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction.
B. If the patient is being treated for secondary diabetes.
C. If the patient is being treated for Type 2 diabetes and uses insulin.
D. If the patient is diabetic with an associated condition
Q12.A patient is diagnosed with alcohol use, alcohol abuse, and alcohol dependence. What is the correct coding guideline?
A) Assign only the alcohol dependence code
B) Assign both abuse and dependence codes.
C) Assign all three codes to reflect severity.
D) Assign only the alcohol abuse code.
Q13. A patient with right-sided hemiplegia has no clear documentation of hand dominance. How should this be coded?
A) Default to dominant side
B) Default to non-dominant side.
C) Assign an unspecified dominance code.
D) Do not assign a dominance-related code unless documented explicitly.
Q14. A patient has stage 3 chronic kidney disease with hypertension. Which guideline should be followed?
(A) Use a combination code for hypertensive CKD.
B) Code hypertension and CKD separately, as they are unrelated conditions.
C) Assign a separate code for hypertension and note CKD in the documentation only.
D) Use a general hypertension code and a CKD code without linking them.
Q15. Which statement is TRUE for reporting external cause codes of morbidity (VOO-Y99)?
A. All external cause codes do not require a seventh character.
B. Only report one external cause code to fully explain each cause.
C. Report code Y92.9 if the place of occurrence is not stated.
D External cause codes should never be sequenced as a first-listed or primary code
Q16. Which statement is TRUE when reporting pregnancy codes (000-0904)
A. These codes can be used on the maternal and baby records.
B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters.
C. Code Z33.1 should always be reported with these codes.
D. The seventh character assigned to these codes only indicate a complication during the pregnancy.
Q17.A patient presents with vertigo and giddiness. What is the correct ICD-10-CM code?
A. R41.0
B. R42
C. R55
D. H81.10
Q18. Which statement is TRUE about 2 codes:
A. Z codes are never reported as a primary code.
B. Z codes are only reported with injury codes.
C. Z codes may be used either as a primary code or a secondary code.
D. Z codes are always reported as a secondary code.
Q19. If a ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) converts to a non ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) due to thrombolytic therapy, how is it reported, according to ICD-10-CM guidelines?
A. As unspecified AMI
B. As a subendocardial AMI
C. AS STEMI
D. As a NSTEMI
Q20. When coding for a patient who has had a primary malignancy of the thyroid cartilage that was completely excised a year ago, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. When the cancer is surgically removed with no further treatment provided and there is no evidence of any existing primary malignansar code Z85.850
B. When further treatment is provided and there is evidence of an existing metastasis, code first Z85.850 and then C32.9.
C. Any mention of extension, invasion, or metastasis to another site is coded as a D49.1, Z85.850.
D. When the cancer is surgically removed but the patient is receiving chemotherapy treatment report Z85.850
Q21. Which Place of service code is submitted on the claim for a service that is performed in an outpatient surgical floor.
A. 22
B. 24
C. 11
D. 21
Q22. Pam presented to the emergency room with abdominal pain and vomiting After an exam and x-ray she is admitted to the observation status To be given intravenous flutes and consult with surgeon which enm category is reported.
A. Initial observation
B.Consultation
C.Emergency department
D. Inpatient consultation
Q23. What are the structures that connect one bone to another bone for example the Tibia to the femur bone.
A. Tendons
B. Ligaments
C. Bursa
D. Cartilage
Q24. A diagnostic colonoscope is performed but the scope does not reach to the splenic flexure Using the colonoscopy decision tree illustrate in the CPT code book how is it coded.
A. 45378- 52
B. 45330
C. 45378
45378-53
Q25. According to the CPT radiology guidelines which is not reported as Imaging guidance.
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. Radal signals
C. Fluoroscopy
D. Computed tomography
Q26. An elderly patients come into the emergency department with shortness of breathe and ECG’s perform the final diagnosis that discharge is impending MI according to the ICD-10-cm guidelines how is this reported.
A. I20.0
B. I21.3, R06.02
C. R06.02
D. I20.0, R06.02
Q27. What CPT code is reported for open Decortication and partial plurectomy.
A. 32220
B. 32320
C. 32225
D. 32652
Q28. In the respiratory system where is the carina located.
A. Left bronchus
B. Tracheal bifurcation
C. Inferior turbinate
D. Sphenoid sinus
Q29. Choose the appropriate ICD-10 CM code for multiple moderate laceration of the spleen initial encounter.
A. S36.030A
B. S36.031A
C. S36.032A
D. S36.039A
Q30. Which is statement is true regarding coding COPD with asthma in ICD-10 CM.
A. The type of asthma is reported along with COPD.
B. Only COPD is reported
C. Only asthma is reported
D. COPD with bronchitis is reported for
COPD with asthma
Answer
1 – B, 2– D , 3- D, 4-C, 5 – C, 6-D, 7- C, 8-B, 9-B, 10 -A,
11-A, 12-A , 13 – A , 14 -A , 15 – D, 16 – B, 17 – B , 18 – C, 19 – C, 20 – A,
21 – A, 22 -A, 23 -B, 24 – B, 25 -B, 26- A, 27 – B , 28 – B, 29 – C, 30-A
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