Sample Questions Paper for CPC Exam

 

CPC Mock Questions Paper Series Wise : In this article, we collect important questions related to all series mock questions for cpc exams. This mock is very important for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam. In this article we collect 150 questions in which medical terminology , medical anatomy , compliance , and cpt all series questions and also icd questions and 10 questions form cases . This mock is very important for your cpc exam. In cpc exam total 100 questions come but in this mock we collect and give 150 questions for your practice , CPC exam mock questions . Sample Questions Paper for CPC Exam

For CPC exam practice is very must to get 70% in exam, i will provide back to back 5 Mock questions and answers for cpc exam. CPC Exam Questions is very tricky , if you read carefully questions then you get right answers and get marks.

The AAPC’s Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam is currently the gold standard of coding certifications. Let’s take a look at this certification exam now.

Let’s start –

1. The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is affected by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services – hierarchal condition categories (CMS-HCC)?

a. Part A

b. Part B

c. Part C

d. Part D

2. Healthcare providers are responsible for developing ____ ____ and policies and procedures regarding privacy in their practices.

a. Patient hotlines

b. Work around procedures

c. Fees

d. Notices of Privacy Practices

3. A covered entity may obtain consent of the individual to use or disclose protected health information to carry out all but what of the following?

a. for public use

b. treatment

c. payment

d. healthcare operations

4. How many components should be included in an effective compliance plan?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 7

d. 9

5. According to the AAPC Code of Ethics, Member shall use only ____ and ____ means in all professional dealings.

a. private and professional

b. efficient and inexpensive

c. legal and profitable

d. legal and ethical

6. Medicare Part D is what type of insurance?

a. A Medicare Advantage program managed by private insurers

b. Hospital coverage available to all Medicare Beneficiaries

c. Prescription drug coverage available to all Medicare Beneficiaries

d. Physician coverage requiring monthly premiums

7. Which option below is NOT a covered entity under HIPAA?

a. Medicare

b. Medicaid

c. BCBS

d. Worker’s’ Compensation

8. The 2012 OIG Work Plan prioritizes which of the following topics for review?

a. Dystrophic nail care

b. Lesion removal

c. E/M services during the global surgery periods

d. Fracture repair

9. Muscle is attached to bone by what method?

a. Tendons, ligaments, and directly to bone

b. Tendons and aponeurosis

c. Tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone

d. Tendons, ligaments, aponeurosis, and directly to bone

10. What is affected by myasthenia gravis?

a. Neuromuscular junction

b. Muscle belly

c. Muscle/bone connection

d. Bone

11. Which respiratory structure is comprised of cartilage and ligaments?

a. Alveoli

b. Lung

c. Bronchiole

d. Trachea

12. Upon leaving the last portion of the small intestine, nutrients move through the large intestine in what order?

a. Cecum, transverse colon, ascending colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, anus

b. Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, anus

c. Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, sigmoid colon, descending colon, rectum, anus

d. Cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, anus

13. What are chemicals which relay amplify and modulate signals between a neuron and another cell?

a. Neurotransmitters

b. Hormones

c. Interneurons

d. Myelin

14. A surgeon performs an “escharotomy.” This procedure is best described as:

a. Removal of scar tissue resulting from burns or other injuries

b. Removal of a basal cell carcinoma

c. Debridement of a pressure ulcer

d. Removal of a fingernail

15. The dome-shaped muscle under the lungs flattening during inspiration is the:

a. Bronchus

b. Diaphragm

c. Mediastinum

d. Pleura

16. A thin membrane lining the chambers of the heart and valves is called the:

a. Myocardium

b. Endocardium

c. Pericardium

d. Epicardium

17. A vesiculotomy is defined as:

a. Removal of an obstruction from the vas deferens

b. Surgical cutting into the seminal vesicles

c. Removal of one of the seminal vesicles

d. Incision into the prostate

18. Destruction of lesions of the vulva can be done with “cryosurgery”. This method uses:

a. Chemicals

b. Extreme cold

c. Laser

d. Heat conduction

19. What term describes a woman in her first pregnancy?

a. Primigravida

b. Primipara

c. Nulligravida

d. Parturition

20. A form of milk produced the first few days after giving birth is:

a. Chorion

b. Lactose

c. Colostrum

d.Prolactin

21. The root for pertaining to pancreatic islet cells is:

a. Cyt/o

b. Insul/o

c. Pancreat/o

d.Endocrin/o

22. Sialography is an x-ray of:

a. Sinuses

b. Liver

c. Salivary glands

d. Ventricles of the brain

23. What is the meaning of “provider” in the ICD-10-CM guidelines refers to?

a. the hospital

b. the physician

c. insurance Company

d. the patient

24. What is an example of an injury that would be considered a superficial injury?

a. blister

b. laceration

c. nerve injury

d. venomous insect bite

25. When can you use the code for HIV (B20)?

a. The test result is inconclusive

b. The test result is confirmed by the physician’s diagnostic statement

c. Known HIV without symptoms

d. Suspected HIV

26. What are some examples of fracture aftercare?

a. Follow-up for healed fracture, cast change, medication adjustment

b. Follow-up for healed fracture, cast change

c. Follow-up for healed fracture, medication adjustment

d. Cast change, medication adjustment

27. The instructions and conventions of the classification take precedence over

a. Physicians

b. Official Coding Guidelines

c. CPT®

d. Nothing, they are only used in the event of no other instruction.

28. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported for spastic cerebral palsy due to meningitis?

a. G03.9, G80.1

b. G80.1, G09

c. G80.1, G03.9

d. G09, G80.1

29. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported for a patient with polyneuropathy and sarcoidosis?

a. G63, D86.9

b. G60.9, D86.9

c. D86.9, G63

d. D86.9, G60.9

30. 32-year-old sees her obstetrician about a lump in the right breast. Her mother and aunt both have a history of breast cancer. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported?

a. N63, Z85.3

b. N63.10

C. C50.919, Z80.3

d. N63.10, Z80.3

31. A 50-year old female visits her physician with symptoms of insomnia and upset stomach. The physician suspects she is pre-menopausal. His diagnosis is impending menopause. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported?

a. G47.00, K30

b. N92.0

c. Z78.0, G47.09, K30

d. Z78.0

32. What does MRSA stand for?

a. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus

b. Methicillin resistant streptococcus aureus

c. Moderate resistance susceptible aureus

d. Mild resistance streptococcus aureus

33. When the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical note, what is used as the default type?

a. Type II

b. Type I

c. Can be Type I or II

d. Secondary

34. A patient with viral Hepatitis A is being treated for glomerulonephritis. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

a. K75.9, N08

b. N08, B15.9

c. K75.9, N05.9

d. B15.9, N08

35. A patient is coming in for follow-up of his essential hypertension and cardiomegaly. Both conditions are stable and he is told to continue with his medications. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

a. I11.9, I51.7

b. I51.7, I10

c. I11.9

d. I51.7

36. Patient is seeing the ophthalmologist to examine an old retained metal foreign body in his retina there is the possibility of infection. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

a. H44.709, Z18.10

b.H44.649, Z18.11

c.H44.649, Z18.10

d.H44.749, Z18.10

37. What type of fracture is considered traumatic?

a. Pathologic fracture

b. Malunion fracture

c. Stress fracture

d. Compound fracture

38. Under what circumstances would an external cause code be reported?

a. Illness and injuries

b. Causes of injury, poisoning, and other adverse affects

c. Causes of neoplasms, hypertension and medications

d. Only for the cause of accidents

39. What chapter contains codes for diseases and disorders of the nails?

a. Chapter 13: Diseases of Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue

b. Chapter 14: Congenital Anomalies

c. Chapter 10: Diseases of the Genitourinary system

d. Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue

40. The patient has benign prostate hypertrophy with urinary retention. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

a. N40.1

b. N40.1, R33.8

c. N40.1, R33.9

d. N40.0, R33.8

41. A 2-month-old is seeing his pediatrician for a routine health check examination. The physician notices a diaper rash and prescribes an ointment to treat it. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

a. L22

b. Z00.121, L22

c. L22, Z00.121

d. Z00.129, L22

42. A three-year-old is brought to the burn unit after pulling a pot of hot soup off the stove spilling onto to her body. She sustained 18% second degree burns on her legs and 20% third degree burns on her chest and arms. Total body surface area burned is 38%. What ICD-10CM code(s) should be reported for the burns (do not include External cause codes for the accident)?

a. T21.31XA, T22.00XA, T24.202A, T31.32

b. T21.39XA, T22.00XA, T24.202A, T31.31

c. T21.31XA, T22.30XA, T24.209A, T31.32

d. T21.31XA, T22.399A, T24.202A, T31.31

43. A patient is coming in for follow-up of a second-degree burn on the arm. The physician notes the burn is healing well. He is to come back in two weeks for another check-up. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

a. Z51.89, T22.20XA

b. T22.20XD

c. Z09, T22.20XD

d. Z09

44. A patient was treated in the emergency department for a nasal fracture. Bleeding was controlled, a splint applied and the patient sent home. He returned to the ED several hours later with new bleeding from both nares. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for the second ED visit?

a. T79.2XXA

b. S02.2XXA

c. S02.2XXA, T79.2XXA

d. T79.2XXA, S02.2XXA

45. 40-year-old woman, 25-weeks-pregnant with her second child, is seeing her obstetrician. She is worried about decreased fetal movement. During the examination the obstetrician detects bradycardia in the fetus. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

a. O09.12, O09.413

b. P29.12, O09.413

c. O09.413, O09.522

d. O09.522, O76

46. What three components are considered when Relative Value Units are established?

a. Physician work, Practice expense, Malpractice Insurance

b. Geographic region, Practice expense, Malpractice Insurance

c. Geographic region, Conversion factor, Physician fee schedule

d. Physician work, Physician fee schedule, Conversion factor

47. CPT® Category III codes are reimbursable at what level of reimbursement?

a. 10%

b. 100%

c. 85%

d. Reimbursement, if any, is determined by the payer

48. HCPCS Level II includes code ranges which consist of what type of codes?

a. Category II codes, temporary national codes, miscellaneous codes, permanent national codes.

b. Dental codes, morphology codes, miscellaneous codes, temporary national codes, permanent national codes.

c. Permanent national codes, dental codes, category II codes.

d. Permanent national codes, miscellaneous codes, dental codes, and temporary national codes.

49. A patient is seen in the OR for an arthroscopy of the medial compartment of his left knee. What is the correct coding to report for the Anesthesia services?

a. 01400

b. 01402

c. 29870-LT

d. 29880-LT

50. What is the correct CPT® code for the wedge excision of a nail fold of an ingrown toenail?

a. 11720

b. 11750

c. 11765

d. 11760

51. What is the correct code for the application of a short arm cast?

a. 29065

b. 29075

c. 29125

d. 29280

52. What is the code for partial laparoscopic colectomy with anastamosis and coloproctostomy?

a. 44208

b. 44145

c. 44210

d. 44207

53. What is the correct CPT® code for strabismus reparative surgery performed on 2 horizontal muscles?

a. 67311

b. 67312

c. 67314

d. 67316

54. What is commonly known as a boil of the skin?

a. Abscess

b. Furuncle

c. Lesion

d. Impetigo

55. What is the correct diagnostic code to report an open wound of the right leg related to a non-healing operative wound of squamous cell carcinoma?

a. T81.72XA

b. T81.89XA

c. T81.4XXA

d. Z85.828

56. The patient is here to follow-up for a keloid excised from his neck in November of last year. He believes it’s coming back. He does have a recurrence of the keloid on the superior portion of the scar. Since the keloid is still small, options of an injection or radiation to the area were discussed. It was agreed our next course should be a Kenalog injection. Risks associated with the procedure were discussed with the patient. Informed consent was obtained. The area was infiltrated with 1.5 cc of medication. This was a mixture of 1 cc of

40-mg Kenalog and 0.5 cc of 1% lidocaine with epinephrine. He tolerated the procedure well. What CPT® and ICD-9-CM code(s) are reported?

a. 11900, 11901 x 7, J3301, L91.0

b. 11900, J3301, L91.0

c. 11901, J3301, L91.0

d. 11901 x 8, J3301, D48.5

57. A patient presents with a recurrent seborrheic keratosis of the left cheek. The area was marked for a shave removal. The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic, prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. The lesion measuring 1.8 cm was shaved using an 11-blade. Meticulous hemostasis was achieved using light pressure. The specimen was sent for permanent pathology. The patient tolerated the procedure well. What CPT® code(s) is reported?

a. 11200

b. 11312

c. 11442

d. 11642

58. A 45-year-old male with a previous biopsy positive for malignant melanoma, presents for definitive excision of the lesion. After induction of general anesthesia the patient is placed supine on the OR table, the left thigh prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion. IV antibiotics are given, patient had previous MRSA infection. The previous excisional biopsy site on the left knee measured approximately 4 cm and was widely elipsed with a 1.5 cm margin. The excision was taken down to the underlying patellar fascia. Hemostasis was achieved via electrocautery. The resulting defect was 11cm x 5cm. Wide advancement flaps were created inferiorly and superiorly using electrocautery. This allowed skin edges to come together without tension. The wound was closed using interrupted 2-0 monocryl and 2 retention sutures were placed using #1 Prolene. Skin was closed with a stapler. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 27328

b. 14301

c. 14301, 27328-51

d. 15738, 11606-51

59. Operative Report

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diabetic foot ulceration.

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diabetic foot ulceration.

OPERATION PERFORMED: Debridement and split thickness autografting of left foot ANESTHESIA: General endotracheal.

INDICATIONS FOR PROCEDURE: This patient with multiple complications from Type II diabetes has developed ulcerations which were debrided and homografted last week. The homograft is taking quite nicely; the wounds appear to be fairly clean; he is ready for autografting.

DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: After informed consent the patient is brought to the operating room and placed in the supine position on the operating table. Anesthetic monitoring was instituted, internal anesthesia was induced. The left lower extremity is prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. Staples were removed and the homograft was debrided from the surface of the wounds. One wound appeared to have healed; the remaining two appeared to be relatively clean. We debrided this sharply with good bleeding in all areas. Hemostasis was achieved with pressure, Bovie cautery, and warm saline soaked sponges. With good hemostasis a donor site was then obtained on the left anterior thigh, measuring less than 100 cm2. The wounds were then grafted with a split-thickness autograft that was harvested with a patch of Brown dermatome set at 12,000 of an inch thick. This was meshed 1.5:1. The donor site was infiltrated with bupivacaine and dressed. The skin graft was then applied over the wound, measured approximately 60 cm2 in dimension on the left foot. This was secured into place with skin staples and was then dressed with Acticoat 18’s, Kerlix incorporating a catheter, and gel pad. The patient tolerated the procedure well. The right foot was redressed with skin lubricant sterile gauze and Ace wrap.

Anesthesia was reversed. The patient was brought back to the ICU in satisfactory condition.

What CPT® and ICD-9-CM codes are reported?

a. 15220-58, 15004-58, E10.621,L97.508

b. 15120-58, 15004-58, E11.621, L97.529

c. 15950-78, 15004-78, E11.622 ,L97.526

d. 11044-78, 15120-78, E11.622 , L97.809

60. A patient is seen in the same day surgery unit for an arthroscopy to remove some loose bodies in the shoulder area. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 29805

b. 29806

c. 29807

d. 29819

61. What is the acromion?

a. Part of the elbow joint

b. Ligament near the knee

c. Tendon in the shoulder

d. Extension of the scapula

62. In ICD-10-CM, what do you look for in the alphabetic index, to code a tear of the supraspinatus muscle of the shoulder?

Rotator cuff, sprain Injury, shoulder

Sprain, shoulder Tear, rotator cuff

63. A patient presented with a closed, displaced supracondylar fracture of the left elbow. After conscious sedation, the left upper extremity was draped and closed reduction was performed, achieving anatomical reduction of the fracture. The elbow was then prepped and with the use of fluoroscopic guidance, two K-wires were directed crossing the fracture site and pierced the medial cortex of the left distal humerus. Stable reduction was obtained, with full flexion and extension. K-wires were bent and cut at a 90 degree angle. Telfa padding and splint were applied. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 24535

b. 24538

c. 24582

d. 24566

64. A 27-year-old triathelete is thrown from his bike on a steep downhill ride. He suffered a severely fractured vertebra at C5. An anterior approach is used to dissect out the bony fragments and strengthen the spine with titanium cages and arthrodesis. The surgeon places the patient supine on the OR table and proceeds with an anterior corpectomy at C5 with discectomy above and below. Titanium cages are placed in the resulting defect and morselized allograft bone is placed in and around the cages. Anterior Synthes plates are placed across C2-C3 and C3-C5, and C5-C6. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 22326, 22554-51, 22845, 22851, 20930

b. 63081, 22554-51, 22846, 22851, 20930

c. 63001, 22554-51, 22845, 20931

d. 22326, 22548-51, 22846, 20931

65. This 45-year-old male presents to the operating room with a painful mass of the right upper arm. General anesthesia was induced. Soft tissue dissection was carried through the proximal aspect of the teres minor muscle. Upon further dissection a large mass was noted just distal of the IGHL (inferior glenohumeral ligament), which appeared to be benign in nature. With blunt dissection and electrocautery, the 4-cm mass was removed en bloc and sent to pathology. The wound was irrigated, and repair of the teres minor with subcutaneous tissue was closed with triple-0 Vicryl. Skin was closed with double-0 Prolene in a subcuticular fashion. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 23076-RT

b. 23066-RT

c. 23075-RT

d. 11406-RT

66. A 50-year-old male had surgery on his upper leg one day ago and presents with serous drainage from the wound. He was taken back to the operating room for evaluation of the hematoma. His wound was explored, and there was a hematoma at the base of the wound, which was very carefully evacuated. The wound was irrigated with antibacterial solution.

What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?

a. 10140-79, M96.840

b. 27603-78, M96.840

c. 10140-76, L76.01

d. 27301-78, M96.840

67. A patient presents with a healed fracture of the left ankle. The patient was placed on the OR table in the supine position. After satisfactory induction of general anesthesia, the patient’s left ankle was prepped and draped. A small incision about 1 cm long was made in the previous incision. The lower screws were removed. Another small incision was made just lateral about 1 cm long. The upper screws were removed from the plate. Both wounds were thoroughly irrigated with copious amounts of antibiotic containing saline. Skin was closed in a layered fashion and sterile dressing applied. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 20680

b. 20680, 20680-59

c. 20670

d. 20680, 20670-59

68. A 31-year-old secretary returns to the office with continued complaints of numbness involving three radial digits of the upper right extremity. Upon examination, she has a positive Tinel’s test of the median nerve in the left wrist. Anti-inflammatory medication has not relieved her pain. Previous electrodiagnostic studies show sensory mononeuropathy. She has clinical findings consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has failed physical therapy and presents for injection of the left carpal canal. The left carpal area is prepped sterilely. A 1.5 inch 25 or 22 gauge needle is inserted radial to the palmaris longus or ulnar to the carpi radialis tendon at an oblique angle of approximately 30 degrees. The needle is advanced a short distance about 1 or 2 cm observing for any complaints of paresthesias or pain in a median nerve distribution. The mixture of 1 cc of 1% lidocaine and 40 mg of Kenalog is injected slowly along the median nerve. The injection area is cleansed and a bandage is applied to the site. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 20526, J3301

b. 20551, J3302

c. 20526, J3303

d. 20550, J3302

69. What CPT® code should be reported for a frontal sinusotomy, nonobliterative, with osteoplastic flap, brow incision?

a. 31080

b. 31087

c. 31084

d. 31086

70. A patient’s nose was hit with a baseball during a high school baseball game. At that time reconstruction was performed, with local grafts. Patient returns now as an adult, discontent with the bony prominence along the bony pyramid and flat look of the tip of the nose. He

underwent major repair with osteotomies and nasal tip work. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 30410

b. 30435

c. 30450

d. 30462

71. A 14-year-old boy presents at the Emergency Department experiencing an uncontrolled epistaxis. Through the nares, the ED physician packs his entire nose via anterior approach with medicated gauze. In approximately 15 minutes the nosebleed stops. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?

a. 30903-50, R04.0

b. 30901-50, R04.0

c. 30901, R04.0

d. 30905, R04.0

72. A surgeon performs a high thoracotomy with resection of a single left lung segment on a 57-year-old heavy smoker who had presented with a six-month history of right shoulder pain. An apical lung biopsy had confirmed lung cancer. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

a. 32100, C34.11, F17.219

b. 32484, C34.12, F17.218

c. 32503, C34.12, F17.210

d. 19271, 32551-51, C34.10, M25.511, F17.218

73. What part of the cardiovascular system is responsible for the one-way flow of blood through the chambers of the heart?

a. Septum

b. Heart valves

c. Bundle of His

d. Atria

74. Which main coronary artery bifurcates into two smaller ones?

a. Right

b. Left

c. Inverted

d. Superficial

75. A patient suffering from an abdominal aortic aneurysm involving a renal artery undergoes endovascular repair using modular prosthesis with two docking limbs. Select the CPT® code(s) for this procedure.

a. 34805

b. 0078T, 0079T

c. 33213, 33233-51

d. 34802

76. Physician changes the old battery to a new battery on a patient’s dual chamber permanent pacemaker.

a. 33212

b. 33229

c. 33213, 33233-51

d. 33228

77. A 35-year-old patient presented to the ASC for PTA of an obstructed hemodialysis AV graft in the venous anastomosis and the immediate venous outflow. The procedure was performed under moderate sedation administered by the physician performing the PTA. The physician performed all aspects of the procedure, including radiological supervision and interpretation & intraservice time is about 1 hour. Code for all services performed.

a. 36903, 99151, 99153×3, 75978-26

b. 36901, 99152, 99153×1, 75978-26

c. 36902, 99151, 99153×3

d. 35476, 99155, 99157×3, 75978-26

78. What is included in all vascular injection procedures?

a. Catheters, drugs, and contrast material

b. Selective catheterization

c. Just the procedure itself

d. Necessary local anesthesia, introduction of needles or catheters, injection of contrast media with or without automatic power injection, and/or necessary pre-and post injection care specifically related to the injection procedure.

79. In the cardiac suite, an electrophysiologist performs an EP study. With programmed electrical stimulation, the heart is stimulated to induce arrhythmia. Observed is: right atrial and ventricular pacing, recording of the bundle of His, right atrial and ventricular recording, and left atrial and ventricular pacing and recording from the left atrium.

a. 93600, 93602, 93603, 93610, 93612, 93618, 93621, 93622

b. 93619, 93621

c. 93620, 93621, 93622

d. 93620, 93618, 93621

80. Preoperative Diagnosis: Coronary artery disease associated with congestive heart failure; in addition, the patient has diabetes and massive obesity.

Postoperative Diagnosis: Same Anesthesia: General endotracheal Incision: Median sternotomy

Indications: The patient had presented with severe congestive heart failure associated with her severe diabetes. She had significant coronary artery disease, consisting of a chronically occluded right coronary artery but a very important large obtuse marginal artery coming off as the main circumflex system.

She also has a left anterior descending artery, which has moderate disease and this supplies quite a bit of collateral to her right system. The decision was therefore made to perform a coronary artery bypass grafting procedure, particularly because she is so symptomatic. The patient was brought to the operating room.

Description of Procedure: The patient was brought to the operating room and placed in supine position. Myself, the operating surgeon was scrubbed throughout the entire operation. After the patient was prepared, median sternotomy incision was carried out and conduits were taken from the left arm as well as the right thigh. The patient weighs almost three hundred pounds and with her obesity there was some concern as to taking down the left internal mammary artery. Because the radial artery appeared to be a good conduit, she should have an arterial graft to the left anterior descending artery territory. She was cannulated after the aorta and atrium were exposed and after full heparinization. Attention was turned to the coronary arteries. The first obtuse marginal artery was a very large target and the vein graft to this target indeed produced an excellent amount of flow. Proximal anastomosis was then carried out to the foot of the aorta. The left anterior descending artery does not have severe disease but is also a very good target, and the radial artery was anastomosed to this target, and the proximal anastomosis was then carried out to the root of the aorta.

Sternal closure was then done using wires. The subcutaneous layers were closed using Vicryl suture. The skin was approximated using staples.

a. 33533, 33510

b. 33511

c. 33533, 33517

d. 33533, 33517, 35600

81. CLINICAL SUMMARY: The patient is a 55-year-old female with known coronary disease and previous left anterior descending and diagonal artery intervention, with recent recurrent chest pain. Cardiac catheterization demonstrated continued patency of the stented segment, but diffuses borderline changes in the ostial/proximal portion of the right coronary artery.

PROCEDURE: With informed consent obtained, the patient was prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion. With the right groin area infiltrated with 2% Xylocaine and the patient given 2 mg of Versed and 50 mcg of fentanyl intravenously for conscious sedation and pain control, the 6-French catheter sheath from the diagnostic study was exchanged for a 6French sheath and a 6- French JR4 catheter with side holes utilized. The patient initially received 3000 units of IV heparin, and then IVUS interrogation was carried out using an Atlantis Boston Scientific probe. After it had been determined that there was significant stenosis in the ostial/proximal segment of the right coronary artery, the patient received an additional 3000 units of IV heparin, as well as Integrilin per double-bolus injection. A 3.0, 16 -mm-long Taxus stent was then deployed in the ostium and proximal segment of the right coronary artery in a primary stenting procedure with inflation pressure up to 12 atmospheres applied. Final angiographic documentation was carried out, and then the guiding catheter pulled, the sheath upgraded to a 7-French system, because of some diffuse oozing around the 6-French-sized sheath, and the patient is now being transferred to telemetry for post-coronary intervention observation and care.

RESULTS: The initial guiding picture of the right coronary artery demonstrates the right coronary artery to be dominant in distribution, with luminal irregularities in its proximal and mid third with up to 50% stenosis in the ostial/proximal segment per angiographic criteria, although some additional increased radiolucency observed in that segment.

IVUS interrogation confirms severe, concentric plaque formation in this ostial/proximal portion of the right coronary artery with over 80% area stenosis demonstrated. The mid, distal lesions are not significant, with less than 40% stenosis per IVUS evaluation.

Following the coronary intervention with stent placement, there is marked increase in the ostial/proximal right coronary artery size, with no evidence for intimal disruption, no intraluminal filling defect, and TIMI III flow preserved.

CONCLUSION: Successful coronary intervention with drug-eluting Taxus stent placement to the ostial/proximal right coronary artery.

a. 92928-RC, 92978-RC

b. 92980-RC, 92984-RC, 92978-59-RC

c. 92922-RC, 92978-51-RC

d. 92982-RC, 92981-59 RC, 92978-51-RC

82. What is the correct ICD-10-CM coding for a 30-year-old obese patient with a BMI of 32.5?

a. E66.9, Z68.32

b. E66.8, Z68.32

c. E66.0, Z68.32

d. E66.3, Z68.31

83. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for a percutaneous endoscopic direct placement of a tube gastrostomy for a patient who previously underwent a partial esophagectomy?

a. 49440, 43116

b. 43246, 43116

c. 49440

d. 43246

84. A patient suffering from cirrhosis of the liver presents with a history of coffee ground emesis. The surgeon diagnoses the patient with esophageal varices. Two days later, in the hospital GI lab, the surgeon ligates the varices with bands via an UGI endoscopy. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

a. 43205, I85.10

b. 43244, K74.60, I85.10

c. 43227, K74.60, I85.11

d. 43235, I85.11

85. A 45-year-old patient with liver cancer is scheduled for a liver transplant. The patient’s brother is a perfect match and will be donating a portion of his liver for a graft. Segments II and III will be taken from the brother and then the backbench reconstruction of the graft will be performed, both a venous and arterial anastomosis. The orthotopic allotransplantation will then be performed on the patient. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 47140, 47146, 47147, 47135

b. 47141, 47146, 47135

c. 47140, 47147, 47146, 47136

d. 47141, 47146, 47136

86. Closure of exstrophy of bladder is performed with epispadias repair. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this service?

a. 54390

b. 51940

c. 51860

d. 51880

87. Circumcision with adjacent tissue transfer was performed. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this service?

a. 14040

b. 54161-22

c. 54163

d. 54161, 14040

88. The patient presents to the office for CMG (cystometrogram) procedure(s). Complex CMG cystometrogram with voiding pressure studies is done, intrabdominal voiding pressure studies, and complex uroflow are performed. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this service?

a. 51726

b. 51726, 51728, 51797

c. 51728, 51797, 51741

d. 51728-26, 51797-26, 51741-26

89. Preoperative diagnosis: Cytologic atypia and gross hematuria

Postoperative diagnosis: Cytologic atypia and gross hematuria

Procedure performed: Cystoscopy and random bladder biopsies and GreenLight laser ablation of the prostate. Description: Bladder biopsies were taken of the dome, posterior bladder wall and lateral side walls. Bugbee was used to fulgurate the biopsy sites to diminish bleeding. Cystoscope was replaced with the cystoscope designed for the GreenLight laser. We introduced this into the patient’s urethra and performed GreenLight laser ablation of the prostate down to the level of verumontanum (a crest near the wall of the urethra). There were some calcifications at the left apex of the prostate, causing damage to the laser but adequate vaporization was achieved. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this service?

a. 52648, 52204

b. 52647

c. 52649, 52224-59

d. 52648, 52224-59

90. Patient presents for excision of multiple kidney cysts. Three cysts are excised. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this service?

a. 50290

b. 50280 x 3

c. 50060

d. 50280

91. What is a root word for vagina?

a. Uter/o

b. Colp/o

c. Hyster/o

d. Metri/o

92. What is a bilateral structure of the female reproductive system?

a. Bartholin’s gland

b. Fallopian tubes

c. Ovaries

d. All of the above

93. The patient presents with a recurrent infection of the Bartholin’s gland which has previously been treated with antibiotics and I&D. At this visit her gynecologist incises the cyst, draining the material in it and tacks the edges of the cyst open creating an open pouch to prevent recurrence. How is this procedure coded?

a. 56405

b. 56420

c. 56440

d. 56740

94. What CPT® code is used to report a complete unilateral removal of the vulva and deep subcutaneous tissues?

a. 56630

b. 56633

c. 56625

d. 56620

95. Vulvar cancer in situ can also be documented as:

a. VIN I

b. VIN II

c. Adenocarcinoma of the vulva

d. VIN III

96. What does the abbreviation IVF mean?

a. Intravenous fluids

b. In vitro fertilization

c. Intravaginal foreign body

d. Infundibulum via Fallopian tube

97. A pregnant patient presents to the ED with bleeding, cramping, and concerns of loss of tissue and material per vagina. On examination, the physician discovers open cervical os with no products of conception seen. He tells the patient she has had an abortion. What type of abortion has she had?

a. Missed

b. Induced

c. Spontaneous

d. None of the above

98. Patient wishes permanent sterilization and elects laparoscopic tubal ligation with falope ring. What is/are the CPT® code(s) reported for this service?

a. 58671

b. 58600

c. 58615

d. 58670

99. A patient presents with cervical cancer, it has spread and metastasized throughout the pelvic area. She receives a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo oophorectomy, cystectomy and creation of an ileal conduit and partial colectomy. What is/are the CPT® code(

a. 58150, 51590, 44140

b. 58152, 44141

c. 58150, 51590, 44140,58720

d. 58240

100. A pregnant patient presents with the baby in a breech presentation. During the delivery the doctor attempts to turn the baby while it is still in the uterus. The baby turns but then immediately resumes his previous position. Can this service be billed? If so, what is the code?

a. No, since the doctor was unable to successfully turn the baby.

b. No, this procedure is included in the obstetrical global package

c. Yes, since the doctor did the work, even though the outcome was unsuccessful. Report this procedure with code 59412

d. Yes, only billing it with postpartum care 59515

101. What are the four lobes of the brain?

a. Frontal, Parietal, Temporal, Occipital

b. Sulci, Cerebellum, Pons, Medulla

c. Frontal, Cerebral, Cerebellum, Pons

d. Frontal, Cerebrum, Temporal, Occipital

102. What disease is characterized by enlarged skeletal parts?

a. Acromegaly

b. Goiter

c. Hyperthyroidism

d. Cushing’s syndrome

103. What is the term for paralysis affecting one side of the body?

a. Monoplegia

b. Paraplegia

c. Quadriplegia

d. Hemiplegia

104. A patient with chronic lumbago is seen by the physician to have an epidural injection at the sacral level. What CPT® code(s) is reported for this procedure?

a. 62319

b. 62360

c. 62310

d. 62311

105. The physician removes the thymus gland in a 27-year-old female with myasthenia gravis. Using a transcervical approach, the blood supply to the thymus is divided and the thymus is dissected free from the pericardium and the thymus is removed. What CPT® code(s) is reported for this procedure?

a. 60520

b. 60521

c. 60522

d. 60540

106. A patient is having a decompression of the nerve root involving two segments of the lumbar spine via transpedicular approach. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 63056

b. 63056, 63057

c. 63030, 63035

d. 63030

107. A patient with a herniated cervical disc undergoes a cervical laminotomy with a partial facetectomy and excision of the herniated disc for cervical interspace C3-C4.

What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

a. 63050, M50.20

b. 63020, M50.20

c. 63020, 63035, M50.20

d. 63050, M50.20

108. Mrs. Marsden slipped on the ice last winter and fractured several lumbar vertebrae. Since then she has required pain management therapy at her local hospital with an anesthesiologist. He injects five percent Marcaine mixed with the steroid Decadron (16mg) into the nerve located in the facet joints at levels L3-L4 and L4-L5 on both sides at each level. What CPT® code(s) are reported for this procedure?

a. 64493 x 2

b. 64493 –50, 64494 –50

c. 64493 x 4 –50

d. 64483–50, 64484–50

109. A 37-year-old has multilevel lumbar degenerative disc disease and is coming in for an epidural injection. Localizing the skin over the area of L5-S1, the physician uses the transforaminal approach. The spinal needle is inserted, and the patient experienced paresthesias into her left lower extremities. The anesthetic drug is injected into the epidural space. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this procedure?

a.64483, 64484

b.64493

c.64493, 64494

d.64483

110. A patient receives a paravertebral facet joint injection at three levels on both sides of the lumbar spine using fluoroscopic guidance for lumbar pain. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

a. 64493, 64494 x 2, M54.89

b. 64493-50, 64494-50, 64495-50, M54.5

c. 64493, 64495 x 2, M54.5

d. 64495-50, M54.5

111. A 47-year old female presents to the OR for a partial corpectomy to three thoracic vertebrae. One surgeon performs the transthoracic approach while another surgeon performs the three vertebral nerve root decompressions necessary. How both providers do involved code for their portions of the surgery?

a. 63087-52, 63088-52 x 2

b. 63085-62, 63086-62 x 2

c. 63087-80, 63088-80 x 2

d. 63085, 63086-82 x 2

112. A 15-year-old has been taken to surgery for crushing his index and middle fingers, injuring his digital nerves. The physician located the damaged nerves in both fingers and sutures them to restore sensory function. What CPT® code(s) are reported?

a. 64831, 64872

b. 64834, 64837-51

c. 64831, 64837-51

d . 64831, 64832

113. A patient had recently experienced muscle atrophy and noticed she did not have pain when she cut herself on a piece of glass. The provider decides to obtain a biopsy of the spinal cord under fluoroscopic guidance. The biopsy results come back as syringomyelia.

What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

a. 62270, G95.0, R20.9

b. 62270, G95.0

c. 64831, 64837-51

d. 62269, G95.0

114. A 26-year-old patient presents with headache, neck pain, and fever and is concerned he may have meningitis. The patient was placed in the sitting position and given 0.5 mg Ativan IV. His back was prepped and a 20-gauge needle punctured the spine between L4 and L5 with the return of clear fluid. The cerebral spinal fluid was reviewed and showed no sign of meningitis. What CPT® code(s) is reported?

a. 62270

b. 62272

c. 62282

d. 62319

115. What does IOL stand for?

a. Interoptic laser

b. Intraocular lens

c. Interdemensional ocular lengths

d. Iridescence over lamina

116. Patient had an abscess in the external auditory canal, which was drained in the office. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 69540

b. 69105

c. 69020

d. 69000

117. What CPT® code(s) should be reported for removal of foreign body from the external auditory canal w/o general anesthesia?

a. 69205

b. 69220

c. 69200

d. 69210

118. A patient has heavy skin and muscle hooding down and blocking his vision due to ptosis of upper muscular eyelid defect. The physician performed a bilateral upper blepharoplasty. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

a. H02.403

b. H02.409

c. H02.401

d. H02.402

119. A patient with a cyst-like mass on his left external auditory canal was visualized under the microscope and a microcup forceps was used to obtain a biopsy of tissue along the posterior superior canal wall. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 69100-RT

b. 69105-LT

c. 69140-RT

d. 61945-LT

120. Using your CPT® Index, look up anesthesia for an appendectomy. What CPT® code(s) is reported for the anesthesia?

a. 00790

b. 00840

c. 00860

d. 00862

121. Using your CPT® Index, look up anesthesia for a cholecystectomy. No indication of the approach is mentioned. What CPT® code(s) is for the anesthesia?

a. 00790

b. 00797

c. 00840

d. 00842

122. Following labor and delivery, the mother developed acute kidney failure. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is reported?

a. O26.90

b. P01.9

c. O90.4

d. N19

123. A 42-year-old patient was undergoing anesthesia in an ASC and began having complications prior to the administration of anesthesia. The surgeon immediately discontinued the planned surgery. If the insurance company requires a reported modifier, what modifier is reported best describing the extenuating circumstances?

a. 53

b. 23

c. 73

d. 74

124. Code 00350, Anesthesia for procedures on the major vessels of the neck, has a base value of ten (10) units. The patient is a P3 status, which allows one (1) extra base unit. Anesthesia start time is reported as 11:02, and the surgery began at 11:14. The surgery finished at 12:34 and the patient was turned over to PACU at 12:47, which was reported as the ending anesthesia time. Using fifteen-minute time increments and a conversion factor of $100, what is the correct anesthesia charge?

a. $1,500.00

b. $1,600.00

c. $1,700.00

d. $1,800.00

125. A 43-year-old patient with a severe systemic disease is having surgery to remove an integumentary mass from his neck. What CPT® code(s) and modifier is reported?

a. 00300-P2

b. 00300-P3

c. 00322-P3

d. 00350-P3

126. A 59-year-old patient is having surgery on the pericardial sac, without use of a pump oxygenator. The perfusionist placed an arterial line. What CPT® code(s) is reported for anesthesia?

a. 00560

b. 00560, 36620

c. 00561

d. 00562

127. A CRNA is personally performing a case, with medical direction from an anesthesiologist. What modifier is appropriately reported for the CRNA services?

a. QX

b. QZ

c. QK

d. QS

128. A 40-year-old female in good physical health is having a laparoscopic tubal ligation. The anesthesiologist begins to prepare the patient for surgery at 0830. Surgery begins at 0900 and ends at 1000. The anesthesiologist releases the patient to recovery nurse at 1015. What is the total anesthesia time and anesthesia code?

a. 1hr 30 minutes, 00840

b. 1hr 45 minutes, 00851

c. 1 hr, 00840

d. 1 hr 15 minutes, 00851

129. Procedure: Body PET-CT Skull Base to Mid Thigh

History: A 65-year-old male Medicare patient with a history of rectal carcinoma presenting for restaging examination. Description: Following the IV administration of 15.51 mCi of F-18 deoxyglucose (FDG), multiplanar image acquisitions of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis to the level of mid thigh were obtained at one-hour post-radiopharmaceutical administration. (Nuclear Medicine Tumor imaging).What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 78815

b. 78815, 96365

c. 78816, 96365

130. 25 year old female in her last trimester of her pregnancy comes into her obstetrician’s office for a fetal biophysical profile (BPP). An ultrasound is used to first monitor the fetus’ movements showing three movements of the legs and arms (normal). There are two breathing movements lasting 30 seconds (normal). Non-stress test (NST) of 30 minutes showed the heartbeat at 120 beats per minute and increased with movement (normal or reactive). Arms and legs were flexed with fetus’ head on it chest, opening and closing of a hand. Two pockets of amniotic fluid at 3cm were seen in the uterine cavity (normal). Biophysical profile scored 9 out of 10 points (normal or reassuring). What CPT® code(s) is/are reported by the obstetrician?

a. 76818

b. 76819

c. 76815

d. 59025, 76818

131. 65-year-old female has a 2.5 cm by 2.0 cm non small cell lung cancer in her right upper lobe of her lung. The tumor is inoperable due to severe respiratory conditions. She will be receiving stereotactic body radiation therapy under image guidance. Beams arranged in 8 fields will deliver 25 Gy per fraction for 4 fractions. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

a. 77435-26, C34.11, Z51.0

b. 77371-26, C34.11

c. 77373-26, Z51.0, C34.11

d. 77431-26, Z51.0, C34.12

132. A patient with thickening of the synovial membrane undergoes a fluoroscopic guided radiopharmaceutical therapy joint injection on his right knee. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported by the physician if performed in an ASC setting?

a. 79440 79999,

b. 77002 79440,

c. 20610 79440-26,

d. 77002-26, 20610

133. A patient with bilateral lower extremity deep venous thromboses has a history of a recent pulmonary embolus. Under ultrasound guidance an inferior vena cavagram was performed demonstrating the right and left renal arteries at the level of L1. A tulip filter device was passed down the sheath, positioned, and deployed with excellent symmetry. It showed the filter between the renal veins and the confluence of the iliac veins but well above the bifurcation of the inferior vena cava. What CPT® code(s) is reported?

a. 75825

b. 75827

c. 75820

d. 75860

134. An oncology patient is having weekly radiation treatments with a total of seven conventional fractionated treatments broken up five on one day and two on the next.

What radiology code is appropriate for this series of clinical management fractions?

a. 77427

b. 77427×7

c. 77427×2

d. 77427-22

135. A patient in her 2nd trimester with a triplet pregnancy is seen for an obstetrical ultrasound only including fetal heartbeats and position of the fetuses. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the ultrasound?

a. 76805, 76810, 76810

b. 76811, 76812, 76812

c. 76815 x 3

d. 76815

136. In what section of the Pathology chapter of CPT® would a coder find codes for a FISH test?

a. Cytopathology

b. Immunology

c. Chemistry

d. Other Procedures

137. A patient has a severe traumatic fracture of the humerus. During the open reduction procedure, the surgeon removes several small pieces of bone embedded in the nearby tissue. They are sent to Pathology for examination without microscopic sections. The pathologist finds no evidence of disease. How should the pathologist code for his services?

a. This service cannot be billed

b. 88304

c. 88300

d. 88309, 88311

138. A patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and other symptoms of liver disease as well as complaints of decreased urination. Her physician orders an albumin; bilirubin, both total and direct; alkaline phosphatase; total protein; alanine amino transferase; aspartate amino transferase, and creatinine. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 82040, 82247, 82248, 84075, 84155, 84460, 84450, 82565

b. 80076, 82565

c. 80076

d. 80076-22

139. 17-year-old girl has a bone marrow biopsy for examination as a potential stem cell donor for her mother who has acute monocytic leukemia (AML). What diagnosis code is used with the typing of the stem cell specimens?

a. C93.00

b. Z52.091

c. Z52.001, C93.00

d. Z52.091, C93.00

140. A urine pregnancy test is performed by the office staff using the Hybritech ICON (qualitative visual color comparison test). What CPT® code(s) is reported?

a. 84703

b. 84702

c. 81025

d. 81025, 36415

141. What category of codes should be used to report an evaluation and management service provided to a patient in a psychiatric residential treatment center?

a. Hospital inpatient services

b. Observation services

c. Nursing facility services

d. Domiciliary, rest home or custodial care

142. A pediatrician is asked to be in the room during the delivery of a baby at risk for complications. The pediatrician is in the room for 45 minutes. The baby is born and is completely healthy, not requiring the services of the pediatrician. What CPT® code(s) does the pediatrician report?

a. 99219

b. 99252

c. 99360

d.99360 x 2

143. An infant is born six weeks premature in rural Arizona and the pediatrician in attendance intubates the child and administers surfactant in the ET tube while waiting in the ER for the air ambulance. During the 45 minute wait, he continues to bag the critically ill patient on 100 percent oxygen while monitoring VS, ECG, pulse oximetry and temperature. The infant is in a warming unit and an umbilical vein line was placed for fluids and in case of emergent needs for medications. How is this coded?

a.99291

b. 99471

c. 99291, 31500, 36510, 94610

d. 99434, 99464, 99465, 94610, 36510

144. Patient comes in today at four months of age for a checkup. She is growing and developing well. Her mother is concerned because she seems to cry a lot when lying down but when she is picked up she is fine. She is on breast milk but her mother has returned to work and is using a breast pump, but hasn’t seemed to produce enough milk.

PHYSICAL EXAM: Weight 12 lbs 11 oz, Height 25in., OFC 41.5 cm. HEENT: Eye: Red reflex normal. Right eardrum is minimally pink, left eardrum is normal. Nose: slight mucous Throat with slight thrush on the inside of the cheeks and on the tongue. LUNGS: clear. HEART: w/o murmur. ABDOMEN: soft. Hip exam normal. GENITALIA normal although her mother says there was a diaper rash earlier in the week.

ASSESSMENT

Four month old well check

Cold

Mild thrush Diaper rash PLAN:

Okay to advance to baby foods

Okay to supplement with Similac

Nystatin suspension for the thrush and creams for the diaper rash if it recurs

Mother will bring child back after the cold symptoms resolve for her DPT, HIB and polio What E/M code(s) are reported?

a. 99212

b. 99391

c. 99391, 99212-25

d. 99213

145. A new patient wants to quit smoking. The patient has constant cough due to smoking and some shortness of breath. No night sweats, weight loss, night fever, CP, headache, or dizziness. He has tried patches and nicotine gum, which has not helped. Patient has been smoking for 40 years and smokes 2 packs per day. He has a family history of emphysema. A limited three system exam was performed. Physician discussed the pros and cons of medications used to quit smoking in detail. Counseling and education done for 20 minutes of the 30 minute visit. Prescription for Chantrix and Tetracylcine were given. Patient to follow up in 1 month. We will consider chest X-ray and cardiac work up. Select the appropriate CPT code(s) for this visit:

a. 99202

b. 99203

c. 99203, 99354

d. 99214, 99354

146. A patient with coronary atherosclerosis underwent a PTCA in 2 vessels. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 92920, 92921-59

b. 92920×2

c. 92924

d. 92925, 92996

147. A patient with malignant cardiovascular hypertension is admitted by his primary care physician. What are the correct ICD-10-CM code(s) for this encounter?

a. I25.10, I11.9

b. I11.9, I25.10

c. I25.10

d. I11.9

148. A baby was born with a ventricular septal defect (VSD). The physician performed a right heart catheterization and transcatheter closure with implant by percutaneous approach. What codes are reported?

a. 93530, 93581-59, Q21.9

b. 93581, Q21.0

c. 93530, Q24.0

d. 93530, 93591-59, Q21.0

149. 30-year-old male cut his left hand on a piece of aluminum repairing the gutter on his house. 6 days later, it became infected. He went to the intermediate care center in his neighborhood, his first visit there. The wound was very red and warm with purulent material present. The wound was irrigated extensively with sterile water and covered with a clean sterile dressing. An injection of Bicillin CR, 1,200,000 units was given. The patient was instructed to return in 3-4 days. The physician diagnosed open wound of the hand with cellulitis. A problem focused history and examination with a low MDM were performed.

What are the CPT and ICD-10-CM codes?

a. 96372, L02.113

b. 99201, J0558 x 4, L03.119

c. 99201, 96372, J0558 x 12, L03.114

d. 99284, L03.114

150. Mrs. Salas had 30 minutes of angina decubitus and was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a diagnosis of R/O MI. The cardiologist (private practice based) takes her to the cardiac catheterization suite at the local hospital for a left heart catheterization. Injection procedures for selective coronary angiography and left ventriculography were performed and imaging supervision and interpretation for the selective coronary angiography and left ventriculography was provided. What CPT® code(s) are reported for the services?

a. 93452-26

b. 93458-26

c. 93453-26

d. 93453-26, 93462

 

1 – C  ,       2– D  ,     3-A ,       4-C  ,     5 – D  ,     6-C ,        7-D ,       8-C  ,        9-B ,       10 -A ,       11-D  ,        12-B ,  13– A ,      14-A ,     15-B, 

16-B  ,   17 – B ,     18 -B ,   19 -A ,    20-C ,      21-B ,      22-C ,         23 -B ,       24-A , 25-B ,       26– D,     27-B  ,   28-B  ,    29-A  ,    30- D ,    

31-A,     32 -A,   33-A,       34– D ,       35-B  ,       36 – D, 37– D ,      38-B ,      39-D ,    40-B ,     41-B ,      42-C,       43-B,      44 -A,      45-D ,     

46-A,          47-D ,        48-D,  49-A,       50– C,     51-B,     52-D ,      53-B,     54-B,       55-B ,      56-B,       57-B,      58-B ,         59-B,        60-D ,

61-D ,      62-B ,     63-B,      64-B,      65-A,       66-D,        67-A,      68-A,       69-D,       70-C,          71-A  ,        72-B ,  73-B ,      74-B,     75-B ,   

76-D ,     77-C ,      78-D,       79-C ,     80-D,      81-A ,      82-A  ,        83-D ,         84-B , 85-A,       86– A ,    87-D ,     88-C  ,    89-D ,      90-D ,   

91-B  ,     92-D ,     93-C,      94-A,         95-D  ,       96 – B , 97 -C  ,    98 – A  ,   99-D ,  100 -C ,  101 – A , 102– A ,    103-D  ,    104 -D  , 105-A,   

106– B ,     107 – B ,    108 -B 109 -D ,  110– B ,    111-B ,  112 – D ,  113– D ,   114 – A ,   115-B  ,   116-C,     117 – C , 118-A ,    119-B,   120-B 

121-A ,   122-C ,    123– C , 124 – D,  125-B ,    126-A ,     127– A,    128-B ,     129-A,    130-A  ,    131-C ,    132 – D,  133-A ,  34-A ,   135-D  ,

136-A ,     137-C ,   138-B ,     139-B,     140-C  ,   141 – C,   142 – C,   143 – C ,  144-B  , 145 – B , 146-B  , 147-D,  148 – B , 149-C,  150-B    …………..